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Social Work, Paper – III, December, 2014

Tue, 05 May 2020 08:12:10 GMT

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Group members can help minimize conflict by
(A)    creating harmony in the group by agreeing with other group members.
(B)    being aware of what stage of group formation the group is passing through.
(C)    aiming for cultural consensus.
(D)    being respectful of other’s ideas and culture and aiming for consensus.

2. What is the phenomenon of actions that are contemplated only in a group context ?
(A)    Group conformity
(B)    Reference groups
(C)    Group think
(D)    Leadership styles

3. The special grant for tribal welfare is provided under
(A)    Article 245
(B)    Article 275
(C)    Article 345
(D)    Article 325

4. Unorganized sector in India comprises approximately ……………………. of the working population.
(A)    50%
(B)    90%
(C)    25%
(D)    75%

5. The systematized and established way of living together is
(A)    Society
(B)    Community
(C)    Institution
(D)    Social structure

6. A couple expressing extreme anger at each other come to a social worker for marital counselling. The social worker should first
(A)    explore the goals the anger is marking.
(B)    clarify whether each partner is willing to hear the other.
(C)    acknowledge the anger each partner has towards the other.
(D)   use the interview to probe for positive feelings each has for the other.

7. ‘Ethnocentrism’ means
(A)    Superiority of one’s own culture
(B)    Inferiority of one’s own culture
(C)    Superiority of one’s own class
(D)    Inferiority of one’s own class

8. A detailed plan for obtaining data scientifically is called
(A)    Sample
(B)    Experiment
(C)    Scientific method
(D)    Research design

9. Giving fair share of benefits to members of society is
(A)    Retributive justice
(B)    Distributive justice
(C)    Procedural justice
(D)    Restorative justice

10.Provisions relating to health are given in which chapter of the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(A)    Chapter-II
(B)    Chapter-III
(C)    Chapter-IV
(D)    Chapter-V

11.The policy that deals with the organization of learning and teaching are …………
(A)    Economic policy
(B)    Education policy
(C)    Health policy
(D)    Hosing policy

12.CSWE stands for _________.
(A)   Council of Social Welfare Enhancement
(B)    Council of Social Work Education
(C)    Centre for Social Work Education
(D)    Centre for Social Work Empowerment

13. …………………… Model was propounded by Witmer.
(A)    System
(B)    Remedial
(C)    Developmental
(D)    Preventive

14. ………………… is also called as neo-conservative approach.
(A)    New right approach
(B)    Social democratic approach
(C)    Radical socialist approach
(D)    Feminist approach

15.In ethnographic studies, case study were first used by __________.
(A)    Burgess
(B)    Fredric Le Play
(C)    Herbert Spencer
(D)    Znaniecki

16. …………………. is a type of concurrent evaluation
(A)    Exploratory research
(B)    Historical research
(C)    Action research
(D)    Descriptive research

17.Who has written the book “Development Psychology : A Life Span Approach” ?
(A)    S. Narayan Rao
(B)    Elizabeth B. Hurlock
(C)    G. Murphy
(D)    B.F. Skinner

18.Gordon Allport is best known for his work on
(A)    Personality
(B)    Suicide
(C)    Community
(D)    Learning

19.“Society has been gradually progressive towards a better state” was said by
(A)    Emile Durkheim
(B)    Auguste Comte
(C)    Herbert Bisno
(D)    Herbert Spencer

20.Albert Bandura has proposed ……………. as a key component of human personality development.
(A)    Observational learning
(B)    Theoretical learning
(C)    Conditioned learning
(D)    Operant conditioning

21.Coping mechanism is also termed as ……………...
(A)    Life instinct
(B)    Fighting
(C)    Arguing
(D)    Survival skills

22.ADHD stands for
(A)    Anxiety Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
(B)    Adolescent Depressive Hyperactivity Disorder
(C)    Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
(D)    Attention Depressive Hyperactivity Disorder

23.Kolhberg was involved in the development of __________.
(A)    Theories of moral reasoning
(B)    Stage theories
(C)    Conflict theories
(D)    Transactional theories

24.‘Grapes are Sour’ attitude exemplifies which defense mechanism ?
(A)    Displacement
(B)    Reaction formation
(C)    Identification
(D)    Rationalization

25.Ego state referred to by Transactional Analysis Theory does not include
(A)    Child
(B)    Sibling
(C)    Parent
(D)    Adult

26.Locate the mode from the following : 7, 12, 8, 5, 9, 6, 10, 9, 4, 9, 9
(A)    9
(B)    8.5
(C)    8
(D)    1 0

27.Intrusive thought is associated with
(A)    Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder
(B)    Oppositional Defiance Disorder
(C)    Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
(D)    Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

28.Which is not a purpose of exploratory study ?
(A)    Generating new ideas
(B)    Increase familiarity with the problems
(C)    Determining feasibility of attempting the study
(D)    Predicting events

29. Rastriya Mahila Kosh is also known as ________.
(A)    National Credit Fund for Women
(B)    National Council for Women
(C)    National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(D)    Central Social Welfare Board

30.Sustainable development ensures the wellbeing of individual by _________.
(A)    Social development
(B)   Environmental conservation
(C)    Environmental protection
(D)    All the above

31.The Indian Civil Rights Act was enacted in
(A)    1958
(B)    1962
(C)    1968
(D)    1972

32.Choose the wrong pair :
(A)   Period of Zygote – Pre-natal period
(B)    Period of Embryo – Fertilization to second week
(C)    Neonate – Infancy
(D)    Partunate – Still cutting umbilical cord

33.Which of the following is not a benefit given under the ESI Act, 1948 ?
(A)    Funeral Assistance
(B)    Sickness Benefit
(C)    Maternity Benefit
(D)    Employment Benefit

34.Which is not a mode of settlement of disputes under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A)    Conciliation
(B)    Adjudication
(C)    Arbitration
(D)    Interrogation

35.The book “Group Processes in Social Work : A Theoretical Synthesis” is written by
(A)    H.B. Trecker
(B)    Tom Douglas
(C)    William J. Reid
(D)    Francis J. Turner

36.The Theosophical Society was first introduced by
(A)    Madam Blavatsky
(B)    Sir A.O. Hume
(C)    Surendranath Banerjee
(D)    Swami Vivekanand

37.Which is not a technique of interviewing ?
(A)    Exploring
(B)    Intimidating
(C)    Topical shift
(D)    Generalization

38.Who was the Chair man of the Poor Law Commission of 1905 of England ?
(A)    Thomas Chalmers
(B)    Samuel Augustas Barnet
(C)    Gordon Hamilton
(D)    Edward Edison

39.The book “Social Work Treatment : Interlocking Theoretical Approaches” is written by
(A)    Francis J. Turner
(B)    Arthur Dunham
(C)    Walter A. Friedlander
(D)    R.A. Skidmore

40.According to H.H. Pearlman which is not a type of diagnosis in social work ?
(A)    Clinical
(B)    Dynamic
(C)   Etiological
(D)    Etimological

41.Conscientization ultimately leads to………………..
(A)    Networking
(B)    Planning
(C)    Organising
(D)    Social transformation

42.Gordon Hamilton propounded……………………
(A)    Psychoanalytical Approach
(B)    Psychosocial Approach
(C)    Problem Solving Approach
(D)    Behaviour Modification Approach

43. ………………….. is the blue print of Research.
(A)    Research Design
(B)    Research Problem
(C)    Research Hypothesis
(D)    Research Tool

44. ………………………. is a fact finding investigation.
(A)    Exploratory design
(B)    Intervention study
(C)    Action research
(D)    Descriptive study

45.The factor which is influenced by other factor is __________.
(A)    Dependent variable
(B)    Independent variable
(C)    Intervening variable
(D)    Confounding variable

46.f-test was designed by _________.
(A)    R.A. Fisher
(B)    Karl Pearson
(C)    Karl Popper
(D)    Francis Golton

47.National Social Assistance Programme was initiated in ____________.
(A)    August 1985
(B)    January 1985
(C)    August 1995
(D)    January 1995

48.Which is not correct about collective bargaining?
(A)    It is a process.
(B)    It is tripartite.
(C)    Agreement is reached by negotiations
(D)    Confrontation has no place

49. ………………………… is also known as Engineering Approach developed by Taylor.
(A)    Classical Approach
(B)    Behavioural Approach
(C)    Development Approach
(D)    System Approach

50.The behavioural model is based on …………………….
(A)    System theory
(B)    Learning theory
(C)    Psychodynamic theory
(D)    Conflict theory

51.Four World Conferences on Women were convened by UN in the last century for promoting gender equality. Arrange the venues in the order of the year, starting from first conference.
I.       Nairobi
II.      Beijing
III.     Mexico
IV.     Copenhagen
(A)    I,       IV,     II,      III
(B)    II,      I,       III,     IV
(C)    III,     IV,     I,       II
(D)    IV,     III,     I,       II

52.The order of the Maslow Hierarchy of Needs is
I.       Deficit needs
II.      Safety needs
III.     Esteem needs
IV.     Affiliation needs
Codes :
(A)   III,     IV,     II,      I
(B)    I,       II,      III,     IV
(C)    II,      I,       IV,     III
(D)    I,       II,      IV,     III

53.Assertion (A) : Economic justice is concerned with giving all the members of society a fair share.
Reason (R) : The possible criteria of distribution are equity, equality and need.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)    (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

54.Assertion (A) :   Series of steps are necessary to deal acute stress.
Reason (R) : Crisis intervention offers immediate help to a person to re-establish equilibrium.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)    (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D)    (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

55.Assertion (A) : Records should neither be too long nor too short.
Reason (R) : There should be certain degree of uniformity.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)    (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

56.Assertion (A) : Extroverts are often impatient with slow jobs.
Reason (R) : Extroverts have some problems in communication.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)    (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D)    (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

57. Assertion (A) : ‘National Policy on Empowerment of Women’ (NPEW) aims at advancement and development of women in India.
Reason (R) : PRIs have been assigned important role in NPEW for enhancing women’s participation.
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B)     Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C)     (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D)    (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

58.Assertion (A) : SEWA is the only Trade Union in the unorganized sector by women.
Reason (R) : Women can and do build strong, vital organizations around issues relevant to them.
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C)    (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D)    (A) is false and (R) is true.

59.Assertion (A) : According to Payment of Bonus Act, an employer shall pay atleast 8.33% of wages as Bonus to the eligible employees.
Reason (R) : 8.33% of wages denotes one month wage earned by the eligible employees.
Codes :
(A)    (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)    (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)    (A) is true and (R) is not true.
(D)    (A) and (R) are false.

60.Assertion (A) : Aversion therapy helps in modifying the behaviour by providing rewards.
Reason (R) : The removal of the positive re-enforcement or averse stimuli may be involved in reward system.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)    (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

61.Assertion (A) : Code of Ethics in social work profession is important and essential.
Reason (R) : Code of Ethics evolves as situations present themselves and needs are identified.
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B)    (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(C)    (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D)    Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

62.Which among the following is not the correct matched ?
(A)    Freud – Psychoanalysis
(B)    Adler – Achievement Motivation
(C)    Jung – Understanding the Collective Unconscious
(D)    Lewin – The Life Space

63.Match the following persons List – I with the area they are associated with List – II :
List – I                                   List – II
a. R. Titmas i. Social Group Work
b. C.R. Banerjee                  ii. Social Policy
c. Sunderlal Bahuguna iii. Social Case Work
d. P.R. Balgopal                      iv. Environmental Movement
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       ii         iii         iv         i
(B)       i           iv         iii         ii
(C)       ii         iii         iv         i
(D)       iii         ii         iv         i

64.Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answers from the codes given below :
List – I                                     List – II
a. Basic needs approach i. Begin where the client is
b. Acceptance ii. Pre-requisite to problem solving
c. Participatory approach iii. Rural development
d. Social learning iv. Modern approach
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)      i           iii         ii         iv
(B)       iv         i          ii         iii
(C)       iii         i           iv         ii
(D)       iv         ii         i           iii

65.Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                 List – II
a. Perceptual skills i. Problem situational challenges
b. Cognitive change skill ii. Strengthening external support
c. Support networking skills iii. Restructuring thoughts
d. Problem solving skills iv. Decision making
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       i           iii         ii         iv
(B)       i           iv         ii         iii
(C)       i           iii         iv         ii
(D)       i           ii         iv         iii

66.Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                     List – II
a. Social goal model i. Change agent
b. Reciprocal model ii. Sensitivity training
c. Remedial model iii. Mutual aid
d. T-group model iv. Enabler
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       iv         iii         i           ii
(B)       ii         iii         iv         i
(C)       iii         ii         iv         i
(D)       iv         i           iii         ii

67.Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                            List – II
a. The Gratuity Act                                       i. 1936
b. The Employment Exchange Act ii. 1952
c. The Payment of Wages Act                     iii. 1972
d. The Indian Mines Act                               iv. 1957
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       iii         iv         i           ii
(B)       i           ii         iii         iv
(C)       iv         iii         ii         i
(D)       i           iv         iii         ii

68.Arrange the following Acts in the order in which they were enacted :
I.       The Industrial Disputes Act
II.      Trade Union Act
III.     Employees State Insurance Act
IV.     Equal Remuneration Act
Codes :
(A)    I,       II,      III,     IV
(B)    II,      I,       III,     IV
(C)    III,     II,      IV,     I
(D)    IV,     III,     II,      I

69.Put the following steps in the process of Participatory Rural Appraisal in sequence :
I.       Use of tools
II.      Report generation
III.     Rapport building
IV.     Initial contact
V.      Sharing the learning
VI.     Participating Action Planning
Codes :
(A)    IV,      III,   I,       II,      V,      VI
(B)    IV,      II,     III,     I,       V,      VI
(C)    II,      IV,     III,     I,       V,      VI
(D)    IV,     I,       III,     II,      V,      VI

70.Arrange the following reform movements in order in which they appeared. Use codes given below :
I.       Ramakrishna Mission
II.      Swadeshi Movement
III.     Arya Samaj
IV.     Brahmo Samaj
Codes :
(A)    IV,     I,       III,     II
(B)    IV,     II,      I,       III
(C)    IV,     III,     I,       II
(D)    I,       III,     II,      IV

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions as per the understanding the passage : (Q. Nos. 71 to 75)

India is a country of myriad contradictions. On the one hand, it has grown to be one of the largest economies in the world, and an increasingly important player in the emerging global order, on the other hand, it is still home to the largest number of people living in absolute poverty and the largest number of undernourished children. What emerges is a picture of uneven distribution of the benefits of growth which many believe, is the root cause of social unrest.

Companies too have been the target of those perturbed by this uneven development and as a result, their contributions to society are under severe scrutiny. With increasing awareness of this gap between the haves and the have-nots, this scrutiny will only increase over time and societal expectations will be on the rise. Many companies have been quick to sense this development, and have responded proactively while others have done so only when pushed. Governments as well as regulators have responded to this unrest and the National Voluntary Guidelines for Social, Environmental and Economic Responsibilities of Business and the CSR clause within the Companies Act, 2013 are two such instances of the steps taken.

This combination of regulatory as well as social pressure has meant that companies have to pursue their CSR activities more professionally. There is a need to bring together good practices of companies and grant-making foundations so as to assist companies pursue their CSR activities effectively, while remaining aligned with the requirements of the Companies Act, 2013.

The concept of CSR has evolved and now encompasses all related concepts such as triple bottom line, corporate citizenship, philanthropy, strategic philanthropy, shared value, corporate sustainability and business responsibility. CSR is “the responsibility of enterprises for their impacts on society”. To completely meet their social responsibility, enterprises “should have in place a process to integrate social, environmental, ethical human rights and consumer concerns into their business operations and core strategy in close collaboration with their stakeholders”.

71.The social expectations about the contribution of companies have increased due to
(A)    Increasing awareness of people
(B)    Increasing gap between haves and have-nots
(C)    Uneven development
(D)    Increased societal pressure

72.The root cause of social unrest in India is
(A)    Abundance of population living in absolute poverty.
(B)    The uneven distribution of the benefits of growth.
(C)    Large number of malnourished children.
(D)    Increasing gap between haves and have-nots.

73. Companies are expected to pursue CSR activities professionally due to
(A)    National voluntary guidelines
(B)    Regulatory and societal pressure
(C)    Requirement of Companies Act, 2013
(D)    Good practices

74.The CSR activities of companies can be made more effective and professional
(A)    by meeting social responsibility
(B)    by exempting them from requirements of the Companies Act, 2013
(C)    by encompassing triple-bottom line and strategic philanthropy
(D)    by bringing together good practices of companies and grants-making foundation

75.In order to meet their social responsibility, companies should
(A)    pursue sustainability
(B)    be philanthropic in approach
(C)    work in collaboration with their stakeholders
(D)    encompass corporate citizenship

Social Work, Paper – II, December, 2014

Tue, 05 May 2020 08:09:46 GMT

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The Life Model (Ecological) of social work practice is best associated with
(A)    Walter Friedlander
(B)    Mary Richmond
(C)    Carel B. Germain
(D)    Florence Hollis

2. Sum of the deviations of all the values of X from the Mean is
(A)    Minimum
(B)    Zero
(C)    Maximum
(D)    One

3. Contradictory demands of the same role is termed as
(A)    Role strain
(B)    Role playing
(C)    Role conflict
(D)    Role twisting

4. Dementia is a
(A)    Neuro-Psychiatric problem
(B)    Mental health problem
(C)    Dermatological problem
(D)    Cardio-vascular problem

5. Social activist and Magasaysay award winner Mr. Deep Joshi is best associated with
(A)    Tribal Welfare
(B)    Child Welfare
(C)    Family Welfare
(D)    Youth Welfare

6. To evaluate another culture according to the standards of one’s own culture is
(A)    Material culture
(B)    Ethnocentrism
(C)    Non-material culture
(D)    Xenocentrism

7. Which of the following are the characteristic features of an urban community ?
I.       Large size
II.      Preponderous of voluntary organisations
III.     Anonymity
IV.     Preponderous of secondary and tertiary occupations
Codes :
(A)    II & IV only
(B)    I & III only
(C)    I, III & IV only
(D)    I, II, III & IV

8. Which one is not the assumption of social case work ?
(A)    Every human being is to be respected
(B)    Every human being can change
(C)    Every human being has some work
(D)    Every human being is an artist

9. Which is not a correct statement about lay-off as per Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A)    Lay-off is refusal to give employment.
(B)    Lay-off may be due to break-down of machinery.
(C)    Lay-off may be due to a natural calamity.
(D)    For lay-off, an employee need not be on the muster-rolls.

10.According to Durkheim “Human agency” is constrained by
(A)    Political process
(B)    Social structure
(C)    Economic resources
(D)    Agency of other actors

11.Reproductive and Child Health Programme (RCH) in India was launched in year
(A)    1997
(B)    2001
(C)    2003
(D)    2006

12.The notion that men are stronger than women is a
(A)    Sanction
(B)    Value
(C)    Norm
(D)    Belief

13.Voluntary reference of disputes to arbitration is dealt in under which section of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A)    Section 9
(B)    Section 10
(C)    Section 10-A
(D)    Section 11

14.GDI stands for …………………….
(A)    Growth Development Index
(B)    Gender Development Index
(C)    Growth related Development Index
(D)    Gender related Development Index

15. The Rational-Emotive Therapy is best associated with
(A)    Eric Berne
(B)    William Glasser
(C)    Albert Ellis
(D)    Gordon Hamilton

16.Which of the following is not a correct match ?
(A)    Functional Model         –   Jessie Taft
(B)    Problem-solving Model –   H.H. Perlman
(C)    Client-centered Therapy– Carl Rogers
(D)    Reality Therapy            –   William J. Reid

17.Which of the following is not a theory of labour welfare ?
(A)    Religious Theory
(B)    Trusteeship Theory
(C)    Policing Theory
(D)    Distributive Theory

18.Adult literacy and combination of primary, secondary and tertiary enrolment are the dimensions of ________.
(A)    Life longevity
(B)    Knowledge
(C)    Standard of living
(D)    Social harmony

19.Under which of the following articles of the Constitution of India does the state provide equal justice and free legal aid ?
(A)    Article 38
(B)    Article 39
(C)    Article 39-A
(D)    Article 41

20.The Right to Information Act was passed in the year _________.
(A)    2004
(B)    2005
(C)    2006
(D)    2003

21.Freud suggested that mind is composed of _________.
(A)    Thoughts
(B)    Feelings
(C)    Instincts
(D)    All the above

22.As per the William Beveridge Report 1941, which were the “Giant Evils” in society of England ?
I.       Squalor and Ignorance
II.      Want, Idleness and Disease
III.     Idleness, Disease and Poverty
IV.     Poverty, Unemployment and Squalor
Codes :
(A)    I, III only
(B)    I, II only
(C)    I, IV only
(D)    I only

23.Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of the State Policy ?
(A)    Panchayats
(B)    Weaker sections
(C)    Law and order
(D)    Animal husbandry

24.Who among the following is associated with ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’ ?
(A)    Medha Patkar
(B)    Kailash Satyarthi
(C)    Sunitha Narayan
(D)    Maneka Gandhi

25.Which among the following Indian States has conducted the Panchayat elections first in the country after the 73rd Amendment Act ?
I.       Tamil Nadu
II.      Karnataka
III.     Haryana
IV.     Punjab
Codes :
(A)    I only
(B)    I and II only
(C)    I, II and III only
(D)    III and IV only

26.Which among the following statements is not correct ?
(A)    SSA seeks to provide quality elementary education.
(B)    SSA seeks to open new schools in places which do not have schools.
(C)    SSA addresses the needs of 192 million children of India.
(D)    SSA inter alia focuses on adult education.

27.Which among the following statements is not correct with regard to 73rd Constitutional Amendments ?
I.       Regular elections to Panchayats every 3 years
II.      Reservation of not less than 33% for women.
III.     Constitution of a State Finance Commission to help Panchayats.
IV.     Proportionate seat reservation for SC and ST.
Codes :
(A)    I and II only are correct.
(B)    I, II and III are correct.
(C)    II, III and IV are correct.
(D)    All are correct.

28.Which of the following are the attributes of a profession ?
I.       Recognition by the society
II.      Profiteering
III.     Formal agreement with the state
IV.     Controlled entry
Codes :
(A)    I and IV only
(B)    I, III and IV only
(C)    II, III and IV only
(D)    I, II, III, IV

29.Which among the following is correct ?
I.       The maximum gratuity payable to an employee is Rs. 10 lakhs.
II.      The wage ceiling for the coverage of EPF Act is Rs. 15,000.
III.     A conciliation officer is empowered to pass an award under Industrial Disputes Act.
IV.     Registration of a Trade Union is compulsory to get it recognised by the employer.
Codes :
(A)    I and II only are correct.
(B)    I, II and III are correct.
(C)    I, II and IV are correct
(D)    All are correct.

30. The observation made without involving extrinsic and intrinsic variables is
(A)    Participant observation
(B)    Non-participant observation
(C)    Controlled observation
(D)    Uncontrolled observation

31................... is a violation of contextual, cultural or social norms.
(A)    Rebellion
(B)    Ritualism
(C)    Dyad
(D)    Deviance

32.__________ is the study and review of past operating experience.
(A)    Recording
(B)    Accountability
(C)    Monitoring
(D)    Evaluation

33. ……………………assesses the likely turnover in key posts and identifies suitable candidates to fill these posts in future.
(A)    Manpower planning
(B)    Succession planning
(C)    Turnover
(D)    None of the above

34.Assertion (A) :    Social policy is necessarily concerned with the promotion of social development.
Reason (R) : Social policy is the planned intervention to improve existing social system.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)    (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

35.Assertion (A) : Neo-liberal states believe in the minimum intervention by government.
Reason (R) : Scandinavian countries can be seen as the best example of a welfare state.
Codes :
(A)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B)    (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D)    Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

36.Assertion (A) : Trust is crucial to the relationship between a professional and a client.
Reason (R): Trust in a relationship can act as a catalyst for behavioural change.
Codes :
(A)    (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B)    (A) is false and (R) is true.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(D)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

37.Assertion (A) :    Social workers are imparting training in soft skills to the police personnel.
Reason (R) : Social workers are trained in basic values of justice, equality and respecting human dignity which render them appropriate for imparting training in soft skills.
Codes :
(A)    (A) is false and (R) is true.
(B)    (A) is true and (R) is false.
(C)    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

38.Which of the following is not a correct match ?
(A)    Mohammad Yunus –   Grameen Bank
(B)    Amartya Sen –   Welfare Economics
(C)    Verghese Kurien –   Sampoorna Kranti
(D)    Mahatma Gandhi    –   Swadeshi

39.Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                 List – II
(Name of the Author) (Title of the Book)
a. A. Kadusin                     i. Principles of Social Case Work
b. T. Biestek ii. Child Welfare Services
c. Grace Mathew iii. Introduction to Social Case Work
d. S.K. Khinduka                iv. Working with Communities
Codes :
a          b          c         d
(A)       ii         i           iii         iv
(B)       i           ii         iii         iv
(C)       iv         i           ii         iii
(D)       iii         ii         i           iv

40.Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                  List – II
a. CARA               i. Morphostatic properties
b. Family ii. Alzheimer
c. Dementia iii. Child
d. Creche iv. Adoption
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       iv         i           ii         iii
(B)       i           ii         iii         iv
(C)       iv         iii         ii         i
(D)       ii         iv         iii         i

41.Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                    List – II
a. MADA              i. Rural Housing
b. Step up ii. Rural Connectivity
c. PMGSY iii. Urban Development
d. IAY iv. Tribal Development
Codes :
a          b         c          d
(A)       iv         iii         ii         i
(B)       iii         iv         i           ii
(C)       ii         i           iv         iii
(D)       i           ii          iii         iv

42.Match the following :
List – I                                                 List – II
a. Probative Department i. Rehabilitation of Offender
b. Parole ii. Juvenile Justice
c. Vocational Training iii. District Court
d. Child Welfare Committee iv. Reward for good conduct
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       i           ii          iii         iv
(B)       iii         iv         i           ii
(C)       iv         i           ii          iii
(D)       ii         iii         iv         i

43.Arrange the following Acts in a chronological order of their enactment :
I.       Plantation Labour Act
II.      Payment of Bonus Act
III.     Payment of Wages Act
IV.     Motor Transport Workers Act
Codes :
(A)    I        II       III      IV
(B)    IV      III      II       I
(C)    III      I        IV      II
(D)    II       IV      III       I

44.M.G. Ross has described four major roles of a worker in community organisation. Which of the following are those roles ? Choose the appropriate code.
I.       Leader and Educator
II.      Social Therapist and Expert
III.     Guide and Enabler
IV.     Social Reformer and Mediator
Codes :
(A)    I and IV only
(B)    II and III only
(C)    I and III only
(D)    III and IV only

45.Arrange the following in sequence in context of history of social work in West :
I.       Poor laws
II.      Appointment of overseers of the poor
III.     The Beveridge Report
IV.     Friendly visitors
Codes :
(A)    I,       II,      III,     IV
(B)    IV,     II,      I,        III
(C)    I,       II,      IV,     III
(D)   III,     II,      I,       IV

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions as per the understanding of the passage : (Que. Nos. 46 to 50)

Field work in social work education refers to training and education. The training is repetitive and skill-oriented and education is imparted with broad perspectives. It is a dynamic process of observing, amassing and implementing creative and innovative ideas. Field work is considered to be learning through doing. Field work programme provides an opportunity to students to apply their theoretical knowledge taught in the classroom appropriately in different practical situations. It is a way to transform knowledge through certain skills and techniques into action.

In social work education, the extension and well planned field work programme is inevitable. It is evident that field work varies in quality and quantity in various institutions. It is imparted under supervision and guidance of trained and experience person(s) in social work. It can be said that theory without practice is empty and practice without theory is meaningless.

The field work programme of schools of social work education is the most important and integral part of social work education. Although field work is the most important element in social work education but some schools of social work have failed to develop field work programmes well. While classroom teaching has developed well, we have unconsciously created a greater gap between theory and field work instruction, by failing to develop the latter also to a corresponding level.

Agency based field work utterly lacks in “holistic, development, critical and reflective perspective”. Community based field work with commitment and proper perspective has to be promoted by Department/Schools of social work in India. Partnership between voluntary organizations and Departments/Schools of social work in India has been thoroughly inadequate. Well co-ordinated team work with inter-departmental cooperation ba sed on i nt eg ra ted ap pr oa ch h as a lso been miserably lacking in field work.

46.In some schools of social work, the field work programme is not developed well because
(A)    These schools have failed to develop field work to a corresponding level of theory.
(B)    More emphasis is put on classroom teaching.
(C)    Failure to design good field work activities.
(D)    Lack of Inter-departmental co-operation.

47.Field work is inevitable in social work because
(A)    It provides opportunity to students to apply their theoretical knowledge in real-life situation.
(B)    It is dynamic process of amassing innovative ideas.
(C)    It imparts supervision and guidance of trained persons.
(D)    Theory without practice is empty and meaningless.

48.Community based field work needs to be promoted by social work schools by
(A)    increasing partnership between voluntary organizations, departments and team work.
(B)    adopting a holistic, developmental and critical perspective.
(C)    increasing synchronization between classroom teaching and real life situations.
(D)    developing good field work programmes.

49.In the field work programme in social work, the emphasis is on
(A)    skill orientation in practical situations
(B)    bridging gap between theory and practice
(C)    developing a commitment and proper perspective among social work students
(D)    developing partnership between voluntary organizations and schools of social work.

50.Field work in social work is
(A)    a dynamic process of observing, amassing and implementing innovative ideas.
(B)    a platform for increasing commitment and dedication among students.
(C)    a way of making theory work in practice situations.
(D)    an attempt to impart guidance and supervision to students.

Social Work, Paper – I, December, 2014

Tue, 05 May 2020 08:06:58 GMT

3. Media is known as
(A)    First Estate
(B)    Second Estate
(C)    Third Estate
(D)    Fourth Estate

4. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A)    Group Communication
(B)    Mass Communication
(C)    Intrapersonal Communication
(D)    Interpersonal Communication

5. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has
(i)      Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii)     PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii)    Document camera and specialized software
(iv)    Projector and screen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    (i) and (ii) only
(B)    (ii) and (iv) only
(C)    (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D)    (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

6. Digital Empowerment means
(i)      Universal digit literacy
(ii)     Universal access to all digital resources.
(iii)    Collaborative digital platform for participative governance.
(iv)    Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    (i) and (ii) only
(B)    (ii) and (iii) only
(C)    (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D)    (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

7. The next term in the series : 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, .................... is
(A)    215
(B)    245
(C)    276
(D)    296

8. The next term in the series : AB, ED, IH, NM, …………….is
(A)    TS
(B)    ST
(C)    TU
(D)    SU

9. If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded as
(A)    MQPYLCDFD
(B)    MPQYLDCFD
(C)    PMYQLDFCD
(D)    YMQPLDDFC

10.A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. D is related to E as
(A)    Daughter
(B)    Daughter-in-law
(C)    Sister-in-law
(D)    Sister

11.Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes 12 : 23. The numbers are
(A)    30, 50
(B)    36, 60
(C)    33, 55
(D)    42, 70

12.The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years, father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are
(A)    42, 12
(B)    40, 14
(C)    30, 24
(D)    36, 18

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 17 :

The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to conver t and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said to violate the very spirit of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As John Keats said, ‘We hate poetry that has a palpable design upon us’.

Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the ‘felt reality’ of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ‘ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel’ though that was not so in ‘former days’, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of the precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on the other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers : ‘An idea cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them. Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to feel… the attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them – most often with weapons of mockery.’

13.According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
(A)    Literary distaste for politics
(B)    Literary representation of politics
(C)    Novel with its own politics
(D)    Depiction of murky practice of politics

14.A political novel reveals
(A)    Reality of the things
(B)    Writer’s perception
(C)    Particular ideology of the readers
(D)    The spirit of literature

15.The constructs of politics by its nature is
(A)    Prevalent political situation
(B)    Ideas and Ideologies
(C)    Political propaganda
(D)    Understanding of human nature

16.Literature deals with
(A)   Human experiences in politics
(B)    Intellectual abstractions
(C)    Dry and empty ideas
(D)    Felt reality of human life

17. The observation of the novelist, Mary McCarthy reveals
(A)    unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
(B)    dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
(C)    compatibility between idea and novel
(D)    endless ideas and novels

18. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, that group of propositions is called
(A)    An argument
(B)    A valid argument
(C)    An explanation
(D)    An invalid argument

19.Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular. Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient, regular and studious ?
(A)    Samita alone
(B)    Namita and Samita
(C)    Kabita alone
(D)    Anita alone

20.Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw, farmer is related to plough. In the same way, the author is related to
(A)    Book
(B)    Fame
(C)    Reader
(D)    Pen

21.Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each other. The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s, U, X, Y represent different regions. Select the code that represents the region indicating the class of honest politicians who are not sincere.

Codes :
(A)    X
(B)    q
(C)    p
(D)    s

22.“A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man when his hands were tied.”
The above passage is an instance of
(A)    Deductive argument
(B)     Hypothetical argument
(C)    Analogical argument
(D)    Factual argument

23.By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘wise men are hardly afraid of death’ is contradicted ?
(A)    Some wise men are afraid of death.
(B)    All wise men are afraid of death.
(C)    No wise men is afraid of death.
(D)    Some wise men are not afraid of death.

For a country CO2 emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given in the following table. Answer the questions (24 to 29) based on the data given :

24.What is the percentage (%) growth of CO2 emissions from power sector during 2005 to 2009 ?
(A)    60
(B)    50
(C)    40
(D)    80

25.Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO2 emissions during 2005 to 2009 ?
(A)    Power
(B)    Industry
(C)    Commercial
(D)    Agriculture

26.By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO2 have increased from 2005 to 2009 ?
(A)    ~89.32%
(B)    ~57.62%
(C)    ~40.32%
(D)    ~113.12%

27.What is the average annual growth rate of CO2 emissions in power sector ?
(A)    ~12.57%
(B)    ~16.87%
(C)    ~30.81%
(D)    ~50.25%

28.What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO2 emissions in the year 2008?
(A)    ~30.82%
(B)    ~41.18%
(C)    ~51.38%
(D)    ~60.25%

29.In   which   year,   the   contribution   (%)   of industry   to   total   sectoral   CO2   emissions was minimum ?
(A)    2005
(B)    2006
(C)    2007
(D)    2009

30.Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following ?
(A)    Binary number system
(B)    Decimal number system
(C)    Hexadecimal number system
(D)    Octal number system

31.Which one of the following is not a search engine ?
(A)    Google
(B)    Chrome
(C)    Yahoo
(D)    Bing

32.CSS stands for
(A)    Cascading Style Sheets
(B)     Collecting Style Sheets
(C)     Comparative Style Sheets
(D)    Comprehensive Style Sheets

33.MOOC stands for
(A)    Media Online Open Course
(B)    Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C)    Massive Open Online Course
(D)    Myrind Open Online Course

34.Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is
(A)    100011
(B)    110001
(C)    110101
(D)    101011

35.gif, jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store
(A)    audio data
(B)    image data
(C)    video data
(D)    text data

36.Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3rd of global water consumption?
(A)    Agriculture
(B)    Hydropower generation
(C)    Industry
(D)    Domestic and Municipal usage

37.One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
(A)    Cement industry
(B)    Fertiliser industry
(C)    Foam industry
(D)    Pesticide industry

38.In terms of total CO2 emissions from a country, identify the correct sequence :
(A)    U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
(B)    China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C)    China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(D)    U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

39.Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code :
List – I                                     List – II
a. World Health Day i. 16th September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 11th July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April
Codes :
a          b        c        d
(A)       i         ii        iii         iv
(B)       iv         iii         i         ii
(C)       ii        iii         iv         i
(D)       iii         iv         ii          i

40.The cyclone ‘Hudhud’ hit the coast of which State ?
(A)    Andhra Pradesh
(B)    Karnataka
(C)    Kerala
(D)    Gujarat

41.Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?
(A)    Clean air
(B)    Fresh water
(C)   Fertile soil
(D)    Salt

42.The maximum number of fake institutions /universities as identified by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of
(A)    Bihar
(B)    Uttar Pradesh
(C)    Tamil Nadu
(D)    Delhi

43. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act, 1956 ?
1.      A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2.      A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3.      A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4.      An institution which is a deemed to be university.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1 and 2
(B)    1, 2 and 3
(C)    1, 2 and 4
(D)    1, 2, 3 and 4

44.Which of the following are the tools of good governance ?
1.      Social Audit
2.      Separation of Powers
3.      Citizen’s Charter
4.      Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1, 3 and 4
(B)    2, 3 and 4
(C)    1 and 4
(D)    1, 2, 3 and 4

45.Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?
1.      Summoning
2.      Adjournment – sine die
3.      Prorogation
4.      Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1 and 4
(B)    1, 2 and 3
(C)    1, 3 and 4
(D)    1, 2, 3 and 4

46.The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A)    3 months
(B)    6 months
(C)    4 months
(D)    100 days

47.Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in
(A)    Right to Freedom
(B)    Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(C)    Right to Equality
(D)    Right against Exploitation

48.Which of the following organizations deals with ‘capacity building program’ on Educational Planning ?
(A)    NCERT
(B)    UGC
(C)    NAAC
(D)    NUEPA

49.“Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man” was stated by
(A)    M.K. Gandhi
(B)    R.N. Tagore
(C)    Swami Vivekanand
(D)    Sri Aurobindo

50.Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching ?
(A)    Memory
(B)    Understanding
(C)    Reflective
(D)    Differentiation

51.Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through
(A)    Lecture method
(B)    Demonstration method
(C)    Inductive method
(D)    Textbook method

52.Diagnostic evaluation ascertains
(A)    Students performance at the beginning of instructions.
(B)    Learning progress and failures during instructions.
(C)    Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.
(D)    Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.

53.Instructional aids are used by the teacher to
(A)    glorify the class
(B)    attract the students
(C)    clarify the concepts
(D)    ensure discipline

54.Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to
(A)    Affective domain
(B)    Cognitive domain
(C)    Connative domain
(D)    Psychomotor domain

55.When planning to do as social research, it is better to
(A)    approach the topic with an open mind
(B)    do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C)    be familiar with literature on the topic
(D)    forget about theory because this is a very practical

56.When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A)    Training Program
(B)    Seminar
(C)    Workshop
(D)    Symposium

57.The core elements of a dissertation are
(A)    Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
(B)    Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography
(C)    Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D)    Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion and Conclusion

58.What is a Research Design ?
(A)    A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B)    The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C)    The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D)    A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

59.‘Sampling Cases’ means
(A)    Sampling using a sampling frame
(B)    Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C)    Literally the researcher’s brief case
(D)    Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

60.The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A)    Skewed
(B)    Mesokurtic
(C)    Leptokurtic
(D)    Platykurtic

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- III, June, 2014

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:51:01 GMT

Note : this paper contains seventy (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The mechanism which pushes the painful experiences into unconscious mind is
(A)      Repression
(B)      Regression
(C)      Projection
(D)      Aggression

2. The employee Welfare Facilities available outside the organization are called
(A)      Intra-mural facilities
(B)      Extra-mural facilities
(C)      Extravagance
(D)      None of the above

3.         The matriarchal family is also known as
(A)      Father-centred
(B)      Mother-centred
(C)      Grandparents-centred
(D)      Sibling-centred

4.         Data derived from ordinal scale is called as
(A)      Metric data
(B)      Non-metric data
(C)      Numerical data
(D)      Paired data

5.         One man marrying more than one women is called as
(A)      Polygyny
(B)      Polyandry
(C)      Monogamy
(D)      Group Marriage

6.         The foundation for preparing the scholarly writing into a study is
(A)      Sampling frame
(B)      Literature review
(C)      Research design
(D)      Data analysis

7.         Which one from below given options is termed as institutionalized inequality ?
(A)      Social group
(B)      Association
(C)      Social stratification
(D)      Social change

8.         Which are the techniques used in behavior modification ?
1.         Impulsive Therapy
2.         Assertive Therapy
3.         Aversion Therapy
4.         Simple Extinction
Codes :
(A)      1 and 3
(B)      1, 2 & 4
(C)      2, 3 & 4
(D)      1, 2, 3 & 4

9.         ……………… highlights the inter-relationships between different people in the group
(A)      Sociogram
(B)      Reciprocal model
(C)      Differentiation
(D)      Remedial model

10.       ……………… theory is used to find mental abilities of individual.
(A)      Factor analysis
(B)      Group factor
(C)      Perceptual factor
(D)      Memory factor

11.       Main objective of Gandhi’s concept of “Gram Swaraj” is
(A)      Antyodaya
(B)      Sarvodaya
(C)      Bhagyodaya
(D)      None of the above

12.       Which is not a principle of community organization?
(A)      Principle of specific objectives
(B)      Principle of Dissolution
(C)      Principle of people’s participation
(D)      Principle of planning

13.       Who defined community as the smallest territorial group that can embrace all aspects of social life?
(A)      Kingsley Devis
(B)      Bogardus
(C)      R.M. Maclver
(D)      Ogburn and Nimkoff

14.       Which of the following are important elements of social action ?
1.         Activeness of the community
2.         Democratic approach
3.         Understanding behaviour
4.         Community Resources
Codes :
(A)      1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B)      1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C)      1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D)      2, 3 and 4 are correct

15.       The National policy on child labour was declared in the year
(A)      1986
(B)      1992
(C)      1995
(D)      1987

16.       Under the Ministry of Labour, MES scheme stands for
(A)      Mass Employment Skills
(B)      Modular Employable Skills
(C)      Modern Employment Skills
(D)      Main Employable Skills

17.       Interactional (here and now) aspects of the client-therapist relationship in case work was emphasized by
(A)      Sigmund Freud
(B)      Otto Rank
(C)      Florance Hollis
(D)      Edwin J. Thomas

18.       ‘Power’ is gained whereas 'authority’ is
(A)      acquired
(B)      possessed
(C)      imposed
(D)      Vested

19.       The acronym UDHR stands for
(A)      Universal Declaration on Human Resources
(B)      Universal Development of Human Resources
(C)      Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(D)      United Nations Development Fund for Health and Rehabilation

20.       Which among the following is not a feature of bureaucracy?
(A)      Chain of command
(B)      Span of control
(C)      Personality
(D)      Specialization

21.       …………………… in London encouraged self-help during 1869 ?
(A)      Poor law
(B)      Social Care Council
(C)      Community Chest
(D)      Charity Organization Society

22.       The purging of emotions is called as
(A)      Mutual aid
(B)      Catharsis
(C)      Group cohesion
(D)      Mastery

23.       The protection of Human Rights Act was passed in India in the year
(A)      1992
(B)      1991
(C)      1993
(D)      1994

24.       Asymmertical distribution indicates
(A)      Range
(B)      Standard deviation
(C)      Skewness
(D)      Kurtosis

25.       Alfred Adler propagated
(A)      Instinctive theory
(B)      Social Urge Theory
(C)      Self Actualization Theory
(D)      Hierarchical Theory

26.       Profession selection is an example of
(A)      Approach – approach Conflict
(B)      Avoidance- avoidance Conflict
(C)      Approach – avoidance Conflict
(D)      Multiple – approach Conflict

27.       The discipline concerned with the statistical analysis and description of population composition is called
(A)      Population dynamics
(B)      Census
(C)      Population studies
(D)      Demography

28.       The prohibition of all forms of child labour is explained in
(A)      Article 14
(B)      Article 18
(C)      Article 24
(D)      Article 32

29.       The first Comprehensive Personality Theory given by Freud is
(A)      Psycho Analytical Theory
(B)      Psycho Social Theory
(C)      Social Learning Theory
(D)      Self Concept Theory

30.       The organized effort to solve social problems with the influence of social legislation is called as
(A)      Social welfare
(B)      Social Action
(C)      Social change
(D)      Social stratification

31.       The Developmental Policies which attempt to improve quality of life by centralising planning of goods and services needed by people are called as
(A)      Collectivist
(B)      Analytical
(C)      Elitist
(D)      Populist

32.       Social Development is
(A)      a plea for larger allocation for social and welfare services
(B)      an integrated view of Development
(C)      an effort to provide ad-hoc growth targets in each of the separate sector of planning
(D)      planning exclusively concerned with social services

33.       Emotional insulation
(A)      is covering himself from physical threats
(B)      involves the justification for inappropriate behaviour
(C)      is a manoeuvre aimed at withholding an emotional investment in a desired but unlikely outcome
(D)      involves the use of abstractions as a way of avoiding feelings and distancing one’s self from emotional pain

34.       The attempt made by the social worker to measure the group experience in fulfilling objectives is called as
(A)      Planning
(B)      Intervention
(C)      Evaluation
(D)      Termination

35.       The foundation for the documentation of a programme is
(A)      Assessment
(B)      Accountability
(C)      Monitoring
(D)      Evaluation

36.       The “Key Village” Scheme focuses on
(A)      Livestock
(B)      Agriculture
(C)      Irrigation
(D)      All the above

37.       Social case work is primarily used by professional social workers to help individual and families to deal with
(A)      Interpersonal problems
(B)      Inter-group conflicts
(C)      Family condition
(D)      Inter-community problems

38.       Repression refers to
(A)      a mental process in which extremely threatening and painful thoughts are excluded from the consciousness
(B)      a mental state in which person feels self satisfaction
(C)      a mental state in which person hits himself
(D)      a mental process in which a person blames himself

39.       Which factor is responsible for social disorganization ?
(A)      Social process
(B)      Cultural – lag
(C)      Conflicting values
(D)      All of the above

40.       The factors that result from the interactions of group members are often referred to as
(A)      Group Conflict
(B)      Group Dynamics
(C)      Interpersonal intervention
(D)      Leadership conflict

41.       Which one of the following is not a therapeutic group ?
(A)      Peer mentor group for drug de-addiction
(B)      Hobby group in a school for children
(C)      Guided recreational group for juvenile offenders
(D)      Treatment group of children having behavioural disorders

42.       The Article of Indian Constitution that defined – ‘Scheduled Tribes’, is
(A)      Article 366
(B)      Article 365
(C)      Article 364
(D)      Article 363

43.       Which of the following is an Ascribed Status ?
(A)      Teacher
(B)      Doctor
(C)      Female
(D)      Lawyer

44.       Recognition of one’s emotions and their effect is called as
(A)      Emotional Awareness
(B)      Emotional stability
(C)      Emotional Affection
(D)      Emotional Motivation

45.       The main objective of communication is
(A)      Information
(B)      Personality development
(C)      Management
(D)      Leadership

46.       Village social mapping is a popular method of
(A)      Participatory research
(B)      Participatory action research
(C)      Participatory Rural Appraisal
(D)      All the above

47.       The observation of one’s own mental and emotional process is called as
(A)      Self observation
(B)      Introspection
(C)      Retrospection
(D)      Physical sensation

48.       Ideas of consciousness that is not able to measure is
(A)      Behaviourism
(B)      Functionalism
(C)      Structuralism
(D)      None of the above

49.       Tolerance refers to
(A)      a condition where the drug user needs more and more of the drug to experience the same effect
(B)      a condition where the spouse of the addict continuously tolerate the drug use
(C)      a condition when society approves the use of drug due to compulsion of life saving of the user
(D)      A condition when a community allows the drug user to continue using drug with approved norms

50.       Match List – I with List – II and select he correct answers from the codes given below :
List – I                                                                                                List – II
a.         National Food Security Act 1.         1970
b.         Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 2.         2008
c.         RTI Act 3.         2013
d.         Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act 4.         2005
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      3          1          2          4
(B)      2          3          4          1
(C)      3          1          4          2
(D)      4          1          3          2

51.       Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answers from the codes given below :
List – I                                                                        List – II
a.         Social Conflict Theory 1.         George Homans
b.         Theory of Cultural Lag 2.         Karl Marx
c.         Theory of Differential Association 3.         E.M. Sutherland
d.         Social Exchange Theory 4.         William Ogburn
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      3          1          4          2
(B)      4          1          3          2
(C)      2          4          3          1
(D)      1          2          4          3

52.       Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a.         Community organization 1.         Grace Coyle
b.         Social Group Work                          2.         McNeil
c.         Social Case work 3.         Mary Richmond
d.         Social Work Research 4.         Allen Rubin
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      3          1          4          2
(B)      2          3          4          1
(C)      2          1          3          4
(D)      1          2          4          3

53.       Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answers from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a.         Classical Conditioning 1.         Ivan Pavlov
b.         Operant conditioning 2.         B.F. Skinner
c.         Theory of insight learning             3.         Edward Thorndike
d.         Trial and Error Theory 4.         Kohler
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      1          2          4          3
(B)      2          3          4          1
(C)      1          2          3          4
(D)      4          1          3          2

54.       Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answers from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a.         Experimental design 1.         Pure knowledge
b.         Case Study Method                          2.         Pre and Post
c.         Descriptive research 3.         Fact finding
d.         Fundamental research 4.         Social unit of a person
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      1          2          4          3
(B)      2          3          4          1
(C)      3          2          4          1
(D)      2          4          3          1

55.       Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a.         World Leprosy Eradication Day 1.         December 3rd
b.         World Health Day 2.         April 7th
c.         International Day of Persons with Disabilities    3.         September 8th
d.         International Literacy Day 4.         January 31st
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      4          2          1          3
(B)      2          3          4          1
(C)      3          2          4          1
(D)      4          1          3          2

56.       Match the following items given in List – I with the items given in List – II :
List – I List – II
a.         World Disabled Day 1.         March 15
b.         World Book Day 2.         April 23
c.         Anti-Tobacco Day 3.         June 12
d.         World Day against Child Labour               4.         May 31
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      1          2          4          3
(B)      1          4          3          2
(C)      2          4          3          1
(D)      2          1          4          3

57.       Assertion (A) : Social work is an organized activity which deals with economic dependency.
Reason (R) : Palliative activity is directed towards the alleviation of already existing economic stress.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

58.       Assertion (A) : Human learning is different from animal learning.
Reason (R) : Human has more sophisticated cognitive abilities.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

59.       Assertion (A) : Collective bargaining process eliminates third party intervention
Reason (R)    : Collective Bargaining strongly believes in plant level negotiations.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

60.       Assertion (A) : Treatment groups are generally composed of members with severe emotional, behavioural and personal problems.
Reason (R) : Persons poorly adjusted in a group will have poor adjustment in their social life.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

61.       Assertion (A) : Ratio scale is the highest scale.
Reason (R)    : Ratio scale compares intervals or differences.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D)      (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

62.       Arrange the following in the proper sequence :
1.         Attending to a call on woman helpline.
2.         Investigation on the facts of the case.
3.         Seeking permission of the court for providing shelter
4.         Working on psycho-social and vocational rehabilitation
5.         Working towards reconciliation or separation
Codes :
(A)      1          2          3          4          5
(B)      2          3          5          1          4
(C)      1          3          2          5          4
(D)      4          2          1          3          5

63.       Assertion (A) : The person who needs some social and emotional help is called client
Reason (R)    : Client is always of the same nature.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
(D)      (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

64.       What is the sequence of PRA process ?
I.          Sensitizing the team
II.         Rapport building with target groups
III.       Sharing the observations with target group
IV.       Conducting the PRA
Codes :
(A)      I           II          III        IV
(B)      I          II         IV       III
(C)      I           IV        II          III
(D)      I           IV        III        II

65.       Arrange the major steps of social-planning in sequential order :
1.         Communicate findings with community.
2.         Understand deficiencies of the system
3.         Making partnerships to make change
4.         Make strategies and mobilize people’s participation
Codes :
(A)      1          3          4          2
(B)      2          3          1          4
(C)      2          1          4          3
(D)      1          4          3          2

66.       Communication involves the flow of message in the sequence of
I.          Sender
II.         Encoding
III.       Receiver
IV.       Decoding
Codes :
(A)      I          II         IV       III
(B)      II          I           IV        III
(C)      IV        I           II          III
(D)      II          I           III        IV

67.       CRC stands for
(A)      Criminal Records of the Child
(B)      Convention on the Rights of the child
(C)      Commission for the Rights of the Child
(D)      Centre for the Rights of the Child

68.       Give correct sequence of the States according to their year of adopting Panchayati Raj
I.          Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
II.         Assam, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
III.       Maharashtra
IV.       Gujarat
Codes :
(A)      I           IV        III        II
(B)      II          IV        III        I
(C)      IV        II          I           III
(D)      I          II         III       IV

69.       Arrange the following milestones contributing to the development of case work as amethod in a correct sequence they appeared :
I.          London Charity Organisation
II.         Ego Psychology
III.       Social Diagnosis
IV.       Freudian Psychology
Codes :
(A)      I          III       IV       II
(B)      II          IV        I           III
(C)      IV        III        II          I
(D)      III        I           IV        II

70.       The difficulty in writing is termed as
(A)      Dyslexia
(B)      Discalculia
(C)      Disgraphia
(D)      None of the above

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions as per the understanding of the passage (Question No.71 to 75) :

Food security refers to the availability of food and one’s access to it. A household is considered food-secure when its occupants do not live in hunger or fear of starvation. The World health Organization defines three facets of food security : food availability, food access and food use. Food availability is having available sufficient quantities of food on a consistent basis. Food use is the appropriate use based on knowledge of basic nutrition and care, as well as adequate water and sanitation. The FAO adds a fourth facet : the stability of the first three dimensions of food security over time. Food security at the national level refers mainly to availability in the country of sufficient stocks of food to meet domestic demand, either through domestic supply or through imports.

Loss/wastage of food in India is ironical given the fact that India is among the world’s most hunger-ridden countries. With nearly one-fifth of total population and 43.5 percent of under-five children malnourished, India ranks 15th from the bottom in the 2012 global hunger index. A reduction in food loss/waste can potentially mitigate hunger in the country. Plugging the supply leakage and simplified life-style inducing fewer expenses on food in social gatherings would reduce the overall food production requirement. It would reduce the demand for food from the rich and increase its supply for the poor.

One of the best ways to ensure distribution of food grains in the country is through Public Distribution System. However, the distribution system must be competent enough to deliver as the basic objective of the bill is to curb hunger and malnutrition. Identification of beneficiaries should be done precisely and the machinery should be programmed perfectly to assure that the schemes reach the needy.

Drafting a Food Security Bill and passing it in the Parliament with absolute majority will alone not solve the purposes of food and malnutrition, but implementation of proper measures to ensure that the schemes reach the beneficiaries properly will only provide a better solution to solve the food crisis.

71.       A household is considered food secure when
(A)      food is made available
(B)      food access is heated
(C)      food use is improved
(D)      its occupants do not live in hunger or fear of starvation

72.       Food security at the national level refers mainly to
(A)      the stability of availability, access and use of food
(B)      sufficient stocks of food to meet domestic demand either through domestic supply or through imports
(C)      Proper identification of beneficiaries
(D)      All the above

73.       The basic objective of Food Security Bill is to
(A)      increase access to food
(B)      increase availability
(C)      increase food use
(D)      curb hunger and malnutrition

74.       How to reduce the demand for food from the rich and increase its supply to poor ?
(A)      By reducing food loss/wastage
(B)      By plugging the supply leakage
(C)      Life-style inducing fewer expenses on food in social gatherings
(D)      By overall increase of food production

75.       The success of Food Security Bill in India depends upon
(A)      By passing the Bill with absolute majority
(B)      By depending on existing public distribution system
(C)      By ensuring that the schemes reach the beneficiaries properly
(D)      By making India self-sufficient in food grain production at the macro level

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- II, June, 2014

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:48:59 GMT

Note : this paper contains fifty (%) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which is the nodal body for adoption of children in india ?
(A)      NIPCCD
(B)      CARA
(C)      CSWB
(D)      NCPCR

2.The purging of repressed emotions to get relief is called
(A)      Sublimation
(B)      Ambivalence
(C)      Catharsis
(D)      Fixation

3.The roadmap that guides the behaviour of the members of a society is
(A)      Groups
(B)      Culture
(C)      Peers
(D)      Religion

4.Language of proximity is also known as
(A)      Verbal Communication
(B)      Non-verbal Communication
(C)      Oral Communication
(D)      Written Communication

5.Which is not included in community sentiment ?
(A)      Sense of dependence
(B)      We-feeling
(C)      Instability
(D)      Role feeling

6.The funding agency formed for fund-raising and distributing the funds is called
(A)      Community Welfare Council
(B)      Community Chest
(C)      Neighbourhood Council
(D)      Community Centre

7.‘Social Distance Scale’, was developed by
(A)      Likert
(B)      Thorndike
(C)      Bogardus
(D)      None of the abouve

8.The process of transforming social policy into social service is ……………
(A)      Social Welfare Administration
(B)      Social Aid
(C)      Social Media
(D)      Social Justice

9.The theory that is based on rewards and punishment is
(A)      Trial and Error theory of learning
(B)      Operant conditioning
(C)      Social Learning theory
(D)      Classical conditioning

10.Who is known as the father of ‘intelligence test’ ?
(A)      Bennett
(B)      Gesell
(C)      Villand
(D)      Wechsler

11.The theory which believes in exemplary punishment to discourage the offender from repeating his crime and sets an example for others to keep away from crime is called
(A)      Deterrent theory
(B)      Preventive theory
(C)      Reformative theory
(D)      Retributive theory

12.Which of the following constitutional provisions prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines or any other hazardous occupation ……………
(A)      Article 14
(B)      Article 21
(C)      Article 24
(D)      Article 45

13.The Human Rights Council meets at
(A)      New York
(B)      Vienna
(C)      Geneva
(D)      Paris

14.The method that brings about adjustment in personal and social relationships is called
(A)      Social casework
(B)      Social adjustment
(C)      Social group work
(D)      Defence mechanism

15.According to whom groups must solve two general problems – i.e. instrumental and socio-emotional, to maintain themselves
(A)      Grace Coyle
(B)      Charles Levy
(C)      Clara A. Kaiser
(D)      Robert Bales

16.Probation is
(A)      an escape from imprisonment
(B)      a conditional suspension of sentence
(C)      an institutional method of correction
(D)      a life of freedom from any kind of control

17.The three stages of social change – i.e. theological, metaphysical and positive are postulated by
(A)      Nikolai Mikhailovesky
(B)      Sorokin
(C)      Auguste Comte
(D)      Herbert Spencer

18.Which among the following is not a primary source of data collection ?
(A)      Observation
(B)      Questionnaire
(C)      Interview
(D)      Referral

19.‘Situation approach’ of leadership is also called as
(A)      trait theory
(B)      contingency theory
(C)      ethical approach
(D)      functional approach

20.Every element has a known non-zero probability of being sampled and involves random selection at some point
(A)      Probability sampling
(B)      Non-probability sampling
(C)      Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D)      None of the above

21.Confrontation focuses on one of the following :
(A)      Similarity in the statements
(B)      Congruence in the statements
(C)      Discrepancies in the statements
(D)      None of the above

22.Cognitive needs of human beings are
(A)      the need to develop abilities
(B)      the need for symmetry order and beauty
(C)      the need for security and freedom
(D)      the need to know, to understand and explore

23.The difference between Bhoodan and Gramdan is
(A)      Bhoodan involves donation from individuals whereas Gramdan involves community action
(B)      In Bhoodhan individual ownership is retained whereas in Gramdan it is abolished
(C) In Bhoodan individuals are beneficiaries whereas in Gramdan the beneficiary is whole village community
(D)      All the above

24.The ‘client-centered approch’ is developed by
(A)      Kurt Lewin
(B)      Bandura
(C)      Homans
(D)      Carl Rogers

25.The approach to make people ‘whole’, by encouraging them to shed their defences and unlock their potentials is known as
(A)      Psychodynamic approach
(B)      Systems approach
(C)      Person-centred approach
(D)      Gestalt approach

26.The ‘Task-Centered social work’, has been developed by
(A)      Reid and Eistein
(B)      Conard
(C)      Glenn
(D)      Waldo

27.Which of the following is not a feature of standard Deviation
(A)      It is the best measure of variation
(B)      It is not much affected by fluctuations of sampling
(C)      It gives more weightage to extreme values and less to those which are nearer the mean
(D)      It is the measure for calculating combined standard deviation of two or more groups

28.The disorder which limits food intake is
(A)      Bipolar disorder
(B)      Bulimia nervosa
(C)      Binge eating disorder
(D)      Annorexia nervosa

29.The number of elements to be included in the study is
(A)      Variable
(B)      Hypothesis
(C)      Sample size
(D)      Universe

30.The scale in which numbers are used to rate the objects which have numerically equal distance are termed as
(A)      Nominal scale
(B)      Ordinal scale
(C)      Interval scale
(D)      Ratio scale

31.Evaluation of clients’ present problem the way he is experiencing is ………..
(A)      Etiological diagnosis
(B)      Clinical diagnosis
(C)      Dynamic diagnosis
(D)      Social diagnosis

32.Which is not the nature of community ?
(A)      Geographical area
(B)      Common ties
(C)      Social interaction
(D)      Individualism

33.Arrange the following steps in relation to self-help groups in correct sequence:
1.         Lending, repayment and maintaining accounts and records
2.         Arranging regular meetings with the group
3.         Identifying the area and forming a group of women with common interests
4.         Training and capacity building for sustenance and empowerment
5.         Deciding on the amount for contribution and pooling the money.
Codes :
(A)      4          3          2          5          1
(B)      5          4          3          2          1
(C)      3          2          5          1          4
(D)      2          3          4          1          5

34.To study the consequences of psychoactive drug use the two variables are
(A)      Social situation and family role
(B)      Demand reduction and supply reduction of drugs
(C)      Characteristics of the drug and characteristics of the user
(D)      Marketing of drugs and role of drug mafias

35.Which of the following is not true in relation to significance of NGOs role in mental health?
(A)      Gross scarcity of psychiatrists and other trained personnel.
(B)      Availability of sufficient government funds for NGOs
(C)      Scarcity of cost-effective strategies and interventions
(D)      lack of public awareness and social stigma attached

36.Arrange the sequence of authorities in setting industrial disputes under Industrial Disputes Act.
1.         Board of Conciliation
2.         Works Committee
3.         Conciliation Officer
4.         Court of enquiry
Codes :
(A)      1          3          2          4
(B)      2          3          1          4
(C)      2          4          3          1
(D)      3          1          2          4

37.Which is the correct sequence in social case work process ?
(A)      Intake, investigation, diagnosis, treatment
(B)      Intake , diagnosis, investigation, treatment
(C)      Intake, diagnosis, treatment, investigation
(D)      Intake, investigation, treatment, diagnosis

38.The sequential phases in a social action method are
I.          Sensitization
II.        Awareness Building
III.       Mobilization
IV.       Mass Action
Codes :
(A)      I, II, III, IV
(B)      II, I, III, IV
(C)      III, I, II, IV
(D)      I, II, IV, III

39.Assertion (A)      : Psychosomatic problems are addressed by the case workers
Reason (R)    : Psychological aspects can have influence on the physical conditions of an individual.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

40.Assertion (A)      : A scientific hypothesis is a proposed explanation of a phenomenon which still has to be rigorously tested.
Reason (R)    : A working hypothesis is a provisionally accepted hypothesis proposed for validation.
Codes :
(A)      (A) is correct and (R) is wrong
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not an explanation of (A)

41.Assertion (A) : Tribal people live in a scattered habitation
Reason (R)    : Tribal society is relatively isolated when compared to other societies.
In the context of above two statements which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D)      (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

42.Assertion (A): Recording in social group work is significant for achieving the objectives of the group.
Reason (R)    : Records enable the worker to work out programmes and plan of action for future.
Codes :
(A)      (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
(B)      (A) is not correct and (R) is correct
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

43.Match the following items given in List – I with the items given in List – II :
List – I List – II
a.         Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief            1.         Article 40
b.         Right to work, education and public assistance in certain cases 2.         Article 41
c.         Living wages etc for workers 3.         Article 42
d.         Organization of Village Panchayats 4.         Article 43
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      1          3          2          4
(B)      3          1          4          2
(C)      3          2          4          1
(D)      1          3          4          2

44.Match the following and select the answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                            List – II
a.         The Minimum Wages Act 1.         1926
b.         The Maternity Benefit Act 2.         1951
c.         The Plantation Act 3.         1948
d.         The Trade Unions Act 4.         1961
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      2          4          1          3
(B)      3          4          2          1
(C)      1          3          4          2
(D)      4          3          2          1

45.Which among the following is wrongly matched ?
1.         AITUC -           CPM
2.         INTUC            -           Congress
3.         BMS                -           BJP
4.         CITU               -           CPI
Codes :
(A)      1, 2 and 3
(B)      2, 3 and 4
(C)      1 and 4 only
(D)      2 and 3 only

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions as per the understanding of the passage (Question Nos. 46 to 50) :

The historical nature of gender-based violence confirms that it is not an unfortunate aberration but systematically entrenched in culture and society, reinforced and powered by patriarchy. Violence against women maintains the structures of gender oppression; be it carried out by individuals in private and/or by institutional forces in the public sphere. Families, communities, and social, legal and civic institutions may covertly and overtly endorse it. Whilst violence commands greater attention and fear; sexism and misogyny do their share to shape inequality, by defining and upholding restrictive gender norms.

Patriarchy is about the social relations of power between men and women, women and women, and men and men. It is a system for maintaining class gender, racial and heterosexual privilege and the status of power- relying both on crude forms of oppression, like violence; and subtle ones, like laws; to perpetuate inequality. Patriarchal beliefs of male, heterosexual dominance lie at the root of gender-based violence.

Patriarchy is a structural force that influences power relations, whether they are abusive or not. Power sets the agenda for patriarchy. But, conflating it with abuse or masculinity is problematic and we need a more complex analysis of the typical power and control explanations. Feminism, which is about women claiming their rights to self-determination and equality, confronts gender conformity and aims to replace relationships of power with relationships of meaning.

Culture is used to justify gender inequality and violence by evoking traditional cultural beliefs about how women should be treated. The defence of the culture of a place, country, religion, identity; and the culture of patriarchy is not static : its manifestation on an army base differs from that in a rural town; just as the culture of patriarchy in U.S. differs from that of Gulf, or India.

46.The historical nature of gender-based violence confirms it as
I.          An unfortunate aberration
II.        Systematically entrenched culture of patriarchy
III.       Reinforced inequalities
IV.       All of the above
Codes :
(A)      I and II are correct
(B)      II and III are correct
(C)      I and III are correct
(D)      IV is correct

47.Patriarchy is about social relations of power between
I.          Men and women
II.        Women and women
III.       Men and men
IV.       All the above
Codes :
(A)      I and II are correct
(B)      II and III are correct
(C)      III and I are correct
(D)      IV is correct

48.Complex analysis of the typical power and control helps us to understand
(A)      Patriarchy
(B)      Feminism
(C)      Both
(D)      None

49.………………. is used to justify gender inequality and violence.
(A)      Sexism
(B)      Culture
(C)      Religion
(D)      Region

50. Feminism refers to
(A)      Superior status of women
(B)      Replacing relationships of power with relationships of meaning
(C)      Status quo of power
(D)      Fighting against patriarchy

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- I, June, 2014

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:45:23 GMT

Note : This paper contains Sixty(60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty(50)questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first (50) questions will be evaluated.

1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A)      Short circuit
(B)      Contradiction
(C)      Unevenness
(D)      Entropy

2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A)      Technological theory
(B)      Dispersion theory
(C)      Minimal effects theory
(D)      Information theory

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A)      Karan Johar
(B)      Amir Khan
(C)      Asha Bhonsle
(D)      Gulzar

4. Photographs are not easy to
(A)      publish
(B)      secure
(C)      decode
(D)      change

5.The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also reffered to as
(A)      sparks
(B)      green dots
(C)      snow
(D)      rain drops

6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(A)      noise
(B)      audience
(C)      criticality
(D)      feedback

7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs.7, Rs.8, Rs.10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A)      19
(B)      20
(C)      23
(D)      29

8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A)      OMESUCEM
(B)      OMESICSM
(C)      OMESICEM
(D)      OMESISCM

9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, … is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A)      31
(B)      32
(C)      33
(D)      35

10.       Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ……… by choosing one of the following option given :
(A)      TS
(B)      ST
(C)      RS
(D)      SR

11. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6km, he turned to his left and walked 5km. Then he walked further 3km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9km. how far is he away from his house?
(A)      3km
(B)      4km
(C)      5km
(D)      6km

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written ?
(A)      32
(B)      36
(C)      40
(D)      38

13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength.”
The argument put above may be called as
(A)      Analogical
(B)      Deductive
(C)      Statistical
(D)      Causal

14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A)      The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B)      The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C)      The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D)      The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.

15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A)      contradictory
(B)      contrary
(C)      subcontrary
(D)      subaltern

16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises :
(a)       All dogs are mammals
(b)      No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i)       No cats are mammals.
(ii)      Some cats are mammals
(iii)     No dogs are cats.
(iv)     No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A)      (i) only
(B)      (i) and (ii)
(C)      (iii) and (iv)
(D)      (ii) and (iii)

17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s … represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.

Codes ;
(A)      q and s only
(B)      s only
(C)      s and r only
(D)      p, q and s only

Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions from 18 to 22 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06?
(A)      Government canals
(B)      Private canals
(C)      Tanks
(D)      Other sources

19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A)      Government canals
(B)      Tanks
(C)      Tube wells and other wells
(D)      Other sources

20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?
(A)      1998-99
(B)      2000-01
(C)      2003-04
(D)      2005-06

21. Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A)      Government canals
(B)      Private canals
(C)      Tube wells and other wells
(D)      Other sources

22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A)      1998-99
(B)      2000-01
(C)      2002-03
(D)      2004-05

23. The acronym FTP stands for
(A)      File Transfer Protocol
(B)      Fast Transfer Protocol
(C)      File Tracking Protocol
(D)      File Transfer Procedure

24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A)      PNG
(B)      GIF
(C)      BMP
(D)      GUI

25. The first web browser is
(A)      Internet Explorer
(B)      Netscape
(C)      World Wide Web
(D)      Firefox

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A)      RAM
(B)      ROM
(C)      CD-ROM
(D)      TCP

27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three ?
(A)      MAC address
(B)      Hardware address
(C)      Physical address
(D)      IP address

28. Identify the IP address from the following :
(A)      300.125.317.3
(B)      302.215@417.5
(C)      202.50.20.148
(D)      202-50-20-148

29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15x106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A)      54 million metric tons
(B)      540 million metric tons
(C)      5400 million metric tons
(D)      2400 million metric tons

30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected y urban smog in recent times ?
(A)      Paris
(B)      London
(C)      Los Angeles
(D)      Beijing

31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A)      run-off urban areas
(B)      run-off from agricultural forms
(C)      sewage effluents
(D)      industrial effluents

32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A)      eruption of large amount of material
(B)      string winds
(C)      strong water waves
(D)      strong winds and water waves

33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(A)      1.50C to 20C
(B)      2.00C to 3.50C
(C)      0.50C to 1.00C
(D)      0.250C to 0.50C

34. The National Disaster management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A)      Environment
(B)      Water Resources
(C)      Home Affairs
(D)      Defence

35. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Flood              1.         Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b. Drought 2.         Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c. Earthquake 3.         A vent through which molted substances come out
d. Volcano 4.         Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      4          1          2          3
(B)      2          3          4          1
(C)      3          4          2          1
(D)      4          3          1          2

36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?
(A)      Chlorofluorocarbon
(B)      Carbon dioxide
(C)      Methane
(D)      Nitrous oxide

37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i.          Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii.         India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii.       The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil nadu.
iv.        The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A)      i and ii
(B)      i, ii and iii
(C)      ii and iii
(D)      i and iv

38. Who among the following is he de facto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A)      Chairman
(B)      Deputy Chairman
(C)      Minister of State for Planning
(D)      Member Secretary

39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A)      Union List
(B)      State list
(C)      Concurrent list
(D)      Residuary Powers

40. Which of the following are Central Universities ?
1.         Pondicherry University
2.         Vishwa Bharati
3.         H.N.B Garhwal University
4.         Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A)      1, 2 and 3
(B)      1, 3 and 4
(C)      2, 3 and 4
(D)      1, 2 and 4

41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A)      Only argument (i) is strong
(B)      Only argument (ii) is strong
(C)      Both the arguments are strong
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A)      Assam University
(B)      Delhi University
(C)      Hyderabad University
(D)      Pondicherry University

43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1.         Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2.         The President of India acts as the visitors of the University.
3.         The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive    Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4.         The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A)      1, 2 and 4
(B)      1, 3 and 4
(C)      1, 2 and 3
(D)      1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A)      Students asking questions
(B)      Maximum attendance of the students
(C)      Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D)      Students taking notes

45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A)      Lecture
(B)      Discussion
(C)      Demonstration
(D)      Narration

46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A)      mental disorder
(B)      behavioural disorder
(C)      reading disorder
(D)      writing disorder

47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A)      INFLIBNET
(B)      Consortium for Educational Communication
(C)      National Knowledge Commission
(D)      Indira Gandhi National Open University

48. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A)      effective
(B)      cognitive
(C)      affective
(D)      selective

49. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm?
(A)      Peter Haggett
(B)      Von Thunen
(C)      Thomas Kuhn
(D)      John K. Wright

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A)      the appendix
(B)      a separate chapter
(C)      the concluding chapter
(D)      the text itself

51. A thesis statement is
(A)      an observation
(B)      a fact
(C)      an assertion
(D)      a discussion

52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A)      positive paradigm
(B)      critical paradigm
(C)      natural paradigm
(D)      interpretative paradigm

53. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling ?
(A)      Simple random
(B)      Purposive
(C)      Systematic
(D)      Stratified

54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A)      Placement
(B)      Diagnostic
(C)      Formative
(D)      Summative

55. The research stream of immediate application is
(A)      Conceptual research
(B)      Action research
(C)      Fundamental research
(D)      Empirical research

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existance of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members pf a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State” above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.

Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portugese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A)      Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B)      Peaceful co-existance of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C)      Social integration of all groups
(D)      Cultural assimilation of all social groups.

57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A)      Antogonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B)      Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C)      The concept of state sovereignty
(D)      Dependence on religion

58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
(A)      No discrimination on religious considerations
(B)      Total indifference to religion
(C)      No space for social identity
(D)      Disregard for social law

59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A)      Indian tradition of religious tolerance
(B)      Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers
(C)      Social inequality in India
(D)      European perception of Indian State

60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A)      A replica of Utopian State
(B)      Uniform laws
(C)      Adherence to traditional values
(D)      Absence of Bigotry

Social Work, Paper – I, December, 2013

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:34:52 GMT

•   This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
•   Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
•   In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.

1. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A)    To review the literature
(B)    To summarize what is already known
(C)    To get an academic degree to
(D)   To discover new facts or make fresh interpretation of known facts

2. Sampling error decreases with the
(A)    decrease in sample size
(B)    increase in sample size
(C)     process of randomization
(D)    process of analysis

3. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(A)    action research
(B)    applied research
(C)    philosophical research
(D)    historical research

4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A)    Passive audience
(B)    Active audience
(C)    Positive audience
(D)    Negative audience

5. Classroom communication can be described as
(A)    Exploration
(B)    Institutionalisation
(C)   Unsignified narration
(D)    Discourse

6. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A)    Productions
(B)    Perceptions
(C)    Consumptions
(D)    Creations

7. In communication, myths have power, but are
(A)    uncultural.
(B)    insignificant.
(C)    imprecise.
(D)    unpreferred.

8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
(A)    Samachar
(B)    API
(C)    Hindustan Samachar
(D)    Samachar Bharati

9. Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A)    intra-personal communication.
(B)    inter-personal communication.
(C)    group communication.
(D)    mass communication.

10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A)    Contradictory
(B)    Contrary
(C)    Sub-contrary
(D)    Sub-alternation

11.Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A)    Archana
(B)    Bulbul
(C)    Ananya
(D)    Krishna

12.A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A)    Always true
(B)    Always false
(C)    Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D)    Neither true nor false

13.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A)    Circular argument
(B)     Inductive argument
(C)    Deductive argument
(D)    Analogical argument

14.Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A)    Deductive
(B)    Astrological
(C)    Analogical
(D)    Mathematical

15.Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn. Premises :
(i)      All saints are religious. (major)
(ii)     Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A)    All saints are honest.
(B)    Some saints are honest.
(C)    Some honest persons are religious.
(D)    All religious persons are honest.

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 16 to 19 based on this table.

16.Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A)    Western Europe
(B)    North America
(C)    South Asia
(D)    South East Asia

17.Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A)    Western Europe
(B)    North America
(C)    South Asia
(D)    West Asia

18.Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A)    Western Europe
(B)    South East Asia
(C)    East Asia
(D)    West Asia

19.Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A)    Western Europe
(B)    North America
(C)    South Asia
(D)    East Asia

20.The post-industrial society is designated as
(A)    Information society
(B)    Technology society
(C)    Mediated society
(D)    Non-agricultural society

21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A)    Commercial communication
(B)    Military purposes
(C)    Personal interaction
(D)    Political campaigns

22.Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A)    LAN
(B)    WAN
(C)    EBB
(D)    MMS

23.Virtual reality provides
(A)    Sharp pictures
(B)    Individual audio
(C)    Participatory experience
(D)    Preview of new films

24.The first virtual university of India came up in
(A)    Andhra Pradesh
(B)    Maharashtra
(C)    Uttar Pradesh
(D)    Tamil Nadu

25.Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below :
(i)      Limits to Growth
(ii)     Silent Spring
(iii)    Our Common Future
(iv)    Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A)    (i),     (iii),   (iv),   (ii)
(B)   (ii),    (iii),   (i),     (iv)
(C)    (ii),    (i),     (iii),   (iv)
(D)    (i),     (ii),    (iii),   (iv)

26.Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
(A)    Africa
(B)    Asia
(C)    South America
(D)    North America

27.“Women are closer to nature than men.” What kind of perspective is this ?
(A)    Realist
(B)    Essentialist
(C)    Feminist
(D)    Deep ecology

28.Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
(A)    Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B)    Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C)    Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D)    Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

29.The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following :
(A)    Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B)    Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C)    Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D)    Watershed Development Approach

30.The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A)    Thermal power sector
(B)    Transport sector
(C)    Industrial sector
(D)    Domestic sector

31.In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A)    Methane
(B)    Hydrogen
(C)    LPG
(D)    CNG

32.Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A)    Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B)    National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C)    National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D)    National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

33.Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council ?
1.      It is an autonomous institution.
2.      It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3.      It is located in Delhi.
4.      It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    1 and 3
(B)    1 and 2
(C)    1, 2 and 4
(D)    2, 3 and 4

34.The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A)    Advisory Jurisdiction
(B)    Appellate Jurisdiction
(C)    Original Jurisdiction
(D)    Writ Jurisdiction

35.Which of the following statements are correct?
1.      There are seven Union Territories in India.
2.      Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3.      One Union Territory has a High Court.
4.      One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1 and 3 only
(B)    2 and 4 only
(C)    2, 3 and 4 only
(D)    1, 2, 3 and 4

36.Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1.      The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2.      The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3.      The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs. 25,000/-
4.     It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    1 and 2 only
(B)    1, 2 and 4
(C)    1, 2 and 3
(D)    2, 3 and 4

37.Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A)    The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B)    The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C)    CNN and IBN
(D)    CNN, IBN and The Hindu

38. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A)    EKNJFTGP
(B)    EJKNFTGP
(C)    KNJFGTP
(D)    None of these

39.A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs. 7/- whereas that of a mango is Rs. 5/-. If the person has Rs. 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A)    1
(B)    2
(C)    3
(D)    4

40.A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. The lady is related to the man as
(A)    Mother’s sister
(B)    Grand mother
(C)    Mother-in-law
(D)    Sister of Father-in-law

41.In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(A)    4
(B)    5
(C)    6
(D)    8

42.The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A)    85
(B)    60
(C)    70
(D)    65

43.Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A)    6 years
(B)    8 years
(C)    12 years
(D)    16 years

44. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A)    amazon.com
(B)    eBay
(C)    gmail.com
(D)    Twitter

45.The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A)    Universe
(B)    Inference
(C)    Sampling design
(D)    Statistics

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter- governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.

Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

46.The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A)    after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B)    after training the specialists in the field.
(C)    after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D)    after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.

47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A)    increasing number of members to 126.
(B)    imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C)    consistent investment in conservation.
(D)    its proactive role in renovation and restoration.

48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A)    Financial support from the Government of India.
(B)    Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C)    consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D)    Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.

49.As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A)    10 percent
(B)    11 percent
(C)    12 percent
(D)    13 percent

50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i)      There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii)     Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii)    Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv)    Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below:
(A)    (i),     (ii),    (iii),   (iv)
(B)    (i),     (ii),    (iv)
(C)    (i),     (ii)
(D)    (i),     (iii),   (iv)

51.INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A)    International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B)    Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C)    Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D)    Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A)    keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B)    punish those causing disturbance.
(C)    motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(D)    not bother of what is happening in the class.

53.Effective teaching is a function of
(A)    Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B)    Teacher’s honesty and commitment.
(C)    Teacher’s making students learn and understand.
(D)    Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.

54.The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A)    Acquisition of skills
(B)    Modification of behaviour
(C)    Personal adjustment
(D)    Inculcation of knowledge

55.Arrange the following teaching process in order:
(i)      Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii)     Evaluation
(iii)    Reteaching
(iv)   Formulating instructional objectives
(v)     Presentation of instructional materials
(A)    (i),     (ii),    (iii),   (iv),   (v)
(B)    (ii),    (i),     (iii),   (iv),   (v)
(C)    (v),    (iv),   (iii),   (i),     (ii)
(D)    (iv),   (i),     (v),   (ii),    (iii)

56.CIET stands for
(A)    Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B)    Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C)    Central Institute for Education Technology
(D)    Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

57.Teacher’s role at higher education level is to
(A)    provide information to students.
(B)     promote self learning in students.
(C)    encourage healthy among students.
(D)    help students to solve their problems.

58.The Verstehen School Understanding was popularised by
(A)    German Social Scientists
(B)    American Philosophers
(C)    British Academicians
(D)    Italian Political Analysts

59.The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A)    Co-variation, Elimination Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B)    Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C)    Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D)    Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.

60.In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A)    Interpretation
(B)    Theorisation
(C)    Conceptualisation
(D)    Randomisation

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- III, September, 2013

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:19:49 GMT

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objectives type questions, each question carrying  two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.

1. Classical conditioning technique used to eliminate phobias, is used in
(A)      Generalization
(B)      Operant conditioning
(C)      Spontaneous recovery
(D)      Systematic desensitization

2. Put the following events in the order of their occurrence :
i.          Charity organization society (London)
ii.         Publication of a book on social case work
iii.       Charity organization society (USA)
iv.        Emergence of Freudian theory
Codes :
(A)      i           iii        ii          iv
(B)      iv         ii          i           iii
(C)      i           iv         ii          iii
(D)      iii        iv         ii          i

3. Arrange the following steps in the process of establishment of NGOs in a sequence :
i.          Mission
ii.         Vision
iii.       Strategies
iv.        Objectives
Codes :
(A)      i           ii          iv         iii
(B)      i           ii          iii        iv
(C)      ii          i           iii        iv
(D)      ii          i           iv         iii

4. What is the proper sequence of the following ?
i.          Members of similar age-group available with interest in recreational activities
ii.         Group becomes cohesive and goals achieved
iii.       Group goals are identified and clearly stated
iv.        Programme planned and carried out
Codes :
(A)      iii        iv         ii          i
(B)      i           iii        iv         ii
(C)      i           ii          iii        iv
(D)      ii          I           iv         iii

5. Match items given in List – I with those in list – II by selecting the correct code given below :
List – I (Author)                               List – II (Book)
a.         Caplan, G (9161)                  i.          A Theory of Human Motivation
b.         Douglas T. (1993)                ii.         Common Human Needs
c.         Maslow, A. (1943)               iii.       A Community Approch to mental health
d.         Towle, Charlotte (1945)      iv.        A Theory of Group Work Practice
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      ii          i           iv         iii
(B)      iii        ii          i           iv
(C)      iv         iii        ii          i
(D)      iii        iv         i           ii

6. Following are the steps of social research. Arrange the steps to prepare a plan of research study :
(a)       Data collection
(b)       Hypothesis
(c)       Problem formulation
(d)       Objectives
(e)       Processing and analysis of data
(f)        Report writing
Codes :
(A)      (a)       (c)       (b)       (d)       (e)       (f)
(B)      (b)       (c)       (a)       (d)       (e)       (f)
(C)      (d)       (c)       (b)       (a)       (e)       (f)
(D)      (c)       (d)       (b)       (a)       (e)       (f)

7. Match the items of list – I with items of List – II :
a.         Monogamy i.          More than one wife
b.         Polygamy                   ii.         Perfect relationship and living together
c.         Consensual union iii.       Some earlier wives
d.         Serial monogamy iv.        One and only wife
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      iv         i           ii          iii
(B)      i           ii          i           ii
(C)      iv         iii        i           ii
(D)      iv         i           iii        ii

8. Match items in List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                List – II
a.         Transference i.          Law
b.         Parole                                     ii.         Sociology
c.         Cultural lag iii.       Psychiatry
d.         Award iv.        Criminology
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      iii        i           iv         ii
(B)      ii          iii        i           iv
(C)      iii        iv         ii          i
(D)      i           ii          iii        iv

9.Match the following :
List – I List – II
a.         Jane Adams i.          Methods of social work
b.         Johari Window                     ii.         Problem-solving model
c.         H.H Perlman iii.       Social Diagnosis
d.         Mary Richmond                   iv.        Known to others : unknown to self
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      i           iv         ii          iii
(B)      i           iv         iii        ii
(C)      ii          i           iii        iv
(D)      iv         iii        ii          i

10. Match the following :
List – I                                                List – II
a.         Probation Department i.          Rehabilitation of offender
b.         Parole                                     ii.         Juvenile Justice
c.         Vocational Training iii.       District Court
d.         Child Welfare Committee iv.        Reward for good conduct
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)      i           ii          iii        iv
(B)      iii        iv         i           ii
(C)      iv         i           ii          iii
(D)      ii          iii        iv         i

11. Match the following :
List – I (Events) List – II (Date of Observance)
a.         World Day of Water i.          1939
b.         Child Marriage Restraint Act         ii.         July 11th
c.         World Environment Day                 iii.       March 22nd
d.         World Population Day                    iv.        April 22nd
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      ii          iii        I           iv
(B)      iii        I           ii          iv
(C)      iv         ii          I           iii
(D)      iii        iv         I          ii

12. Match the following :
List – I (Item)                                    List – II (Act)
a.         Works Committee i.          Payment of Gratuity Act
b.         Set on and Set off ii.         Industrial Disputes Act
c.         Continuous service iii.       Standing orders
d.         Subsistence iv.        Payment of Bonus Act
v.         Factories Act
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)      ii          iv         iii        v
(B)      ii          iv         i           iii
(C)      iii        ii          v          i
(D)      v          iii        iv         ii

13. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II :
List – I                                                                        List – II
a.         Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act i.          1939
b.         Child Marriage Restraint Act ii.         1955
c.         Dowry Prohibition Act iii.       1961
d.         Hindu Marriage Act iv.        1929
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      i           iv         iii        ii
(B)      i           iii        iv         ii
(C)      iii        iv         ii          i
(D)      i           ii          iii        iv

14. Assertion (A)     : Socialization is a life long process.
Reason (R)    : Socialization process ends with one’s death.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) And (R) are true.
(B)      (A) is true and (R) is not true
(C)      (A) is not true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are not true

15. Assertion (A)     : Position of labour welfare officer is only ornamental but not practical
Reason (R)    : Right person for right job is a prerequisite.
Codes :
(A)      (A) is true, but (R) is not true.
(B)      (A) is not true, but (R) is true
(C)      (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) and (R) are not true.

16. Assertion (A)     : Participation in SHGs leads to women’s empowerment.
Reason (R)    : Through participation in SHGs women improve their self-image, make better choices and enhance their financial status.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are false
(C)      (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

17. Assertion (A)      : Workers participation in industry result in industrial democracy.
Reason (R)    : Workers education program does not encourage the participation of workers.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is not the true explanation of (A).
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)

18. Assertion (A) : Right to self determination is a principle of social work.
Reason (R)    : In social work practice the client is given free hand to decide about his/her future.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)      (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)      (R) is true, but (A) is false

19. Assertion (A)      : Females have higher life expectancy than males.
Reason (R)    : Females receive a better diet.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are false

20. Consider the following statements and select your answer according to the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Peoples participation is essential for the success of the development programme.
Reason (R)    : Education and Awareness lead to participation.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is false
(D)      (A) is false, but (R) is true

21. Assertion (A)      : The connection between industrialization and breakdown of joint family system needs to be studied
Reason (R)    : This calls for variety of researches to be carried out in rural areas alone.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is not true and (R) is true

22. Assertion (A) : Social action is a systematic and conscious effort to influence the basic social conditions for social progress.
Reason (R)    It involves improving social legislative and social policies.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true
(B)      (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      (A) is not true and (R) is true.
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (R)

23. Assertion (A) : Psychologists generally agree that Intelligence Quotient (I.Q.) gets affected by environment.
Reason (R)    : Intelligence Quotient (I.Q) is a biological trait and it cannot be changed
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is not true
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

24. Assertion (A) : Jan Shikshan Sansthan provides vocational training courses to the marginalized.
Reason (R)    : Vocational training empowers the beneficiaries who become entrepreneurs.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is not true and (R) is true.

25. Assertion (A) : Crime rate in India is increasing day-by-day.
Reason (R)    : Crime rate is increasing because people lack skills and use illegitimate means to achieve their goals.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      (A) is not true and (R) is the explanation of (A)
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

26. Assertion (A) : For effective management of a children’s residential home, the staff should be affectionate and friendly.
Reason (R)    : Regular funding is essential to proper functioning of a residential home for children.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      (A) is true and (R) is not true.
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

27. Arrange the following Acts in order in which they were enacted. And select the correct answer using the codes given below :
i.          Payment of Wages Act
ii.         payment of Gratuity Act
iii.       Minimum Wages Act
iv.        Payment of Bonus Act
Codes :
(A)      iii        i           iv         ii
(B)      i           iv         ii          iii
(C)      ii          iv         iii        i
(D)      I          iii        iv         ii

28. Behaviour that is contrary to the standards of conduct or social expectations of a group or society, is defined by
(A)      Elliot and Merill
(B)      Fuller and Myers
(C)      Louise Weston
(D)      Ogburne

29. One of the following theories propounds childhood experiences influence the adult behaviour :
(A)      Person-Centred theory
(B)      Behaviour modification theory
(C)      Psychoanalytic theory
(D)      Existential theory

30. A declarative statement of relationship between or among variables is called
(A)      Concept
(B)      Value
(C)      Hypothesis
(D)      None of the above

31. The extent of difference between population parameters and the sample statistic is called
(A)      Sampling error
(B)      Statistic
(C)      Sampling bias
(D)      None of the above

32. Quartile deviation is also known as
(A)      Range
(B)      Mode
(C)      Semi-inter quartile range
(D)      None of these

33. The time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and appearance of first sign or symptom of the disease in question is called
(A)      Quarantine
(B)      Inoculation
(C)      Incubation period
(D)      None of the above

34. Find the mode of following marks obtained by 10 students : 10, 6, 11, 8, 9, 11, 7, 11, 12, and 10
(A)      12
(B)      8.5
(C)      11
(D)      None of the above

35. Quota sampling is the method of
(A)      Non-probability sampling
(B)      Area sampling
(C)      Simple random sampling
(D)      The lottery method

36. Emotional insulation is
(A)      covering himself from physical threats
(B)      involves the justification for inappropriate behaviour
(C)      a maneuver aimed at withholding an emotional investment in a desired but unlikely outcome
(D)      involves the use of abstractions as a way of avoiding feelings and distancing one’s self from emotional pain.

37. Cone of the layers protecting environment from ultraviolet rays is
(i)        Ozone
(ii)       Ionosphere
(iii)     Stratosphere
(iv)      Troposphere
Codes :
(A)      Only (i) is correct.
(B)      (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C)      (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D)      None of them is correct.

38. Which of the following is not an ascribed status?
(A)      Age
(B)      Caste
(C)      Sex
(D)      Knowledge

39. Skewness tells us about
(A)      The direction of the variation or departure from symmetry
(B)      Amount of variation in the data
(C)      Estimates of the values of variables
(D)      The measurement of the scattered values.

40. Variance is
(A)      Range
(B)      Quartile Deviation
(C)      Measure of Skewness
(D)      The average of the squared differences from the mean

41. World Elder’s day observed on
(A)      1st October
(B)      1st November
(C)      1st April
(D)      1st May

42. Personification is
(A)      a method of identifying persons as a resource
(B)      a technique whereby the group worker gives instructions
(C)      a method of working with groups in which the group worker is presented as a model.
(D)      a procedure to select working participation.

43. ‘Acrophobia’ is the fear of
(A)      Water
(B)      Place
(C)      Blood
(D)      Height

44. A Researcher is generally expected to
(A)      study the existing literature in a field.
(B)      generate new principles and theories
(C)      synthesize the ideas given by others.
(D)      all the above.

45. Arrange the following Acts in order in which they were enacted :
i.          The Workmen’s Compensation Act
ii.         The Indian Trade Unions Act
iii.       The Payment of Wages Act
iv.        The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
Codes :
(A)      i           iii        iv         ii
(B)      ii          i           iii        iv
(C)      i           ii          iii        iv
(D)      iii        iv         ii          i

46. One of the sections of Income Tax Act that gives tax exemption to non-profit organizations on their income is
(A)      12A
(B)      17B
(C)      80G
(D)      All the above

47.       Case study is the form of
(A)      Subjective analysis
(B)      Qualitative analysis
(C)      Quantitative analysis
(D)      Objective analysis

48. ‘Self talk’, means
(A)      The messages that a person gives to himself/herself.
(B)      A technique of talking with two persons
(C)      The message a person receives for himself
(D)      Message received from super natural power.

49. Human Rights Day observed on
(A)      1st December
(B)      10th December
(C)      12th December
(D)      15th December

50. National Institute of Social Defence is situated at
(A)      Delhi
(B)      Bangalore
(C)      Mumbai
(D)      Chennai

51. The basic skill of active listening which is the cornerstone of effective communication is
(A)      making a diagnostic formulation of the client as he speaks.
(B)      clarify what the client relates without being paternalistic
(C)      evaluate the effect that transference is having on the social worker-client relationship.
(D)      understand both what the client & the social worker are saying and the undercurrents of unspoken feelings between the two.

52. Which of the following is not a part of community organization ?
(A)      To determine the social needs of a community.
(B)      To integrate the specific needs of some individual members of community.
(C)      To consciously do planning for meeting the needs of the community.
(D)      To mobilize community resources to meet the social needs of a community.

53. National Policy for children was launched in
(A)      August 1974
(B)      August 1977
(C)      August 1978
(D)      August 1975

54. Who coined the term ‘Isolated nuclear family’?
(A)      William J. Goode
(B)      Murdock
(C)      Cooper
(D)      Talcot Parsons

55. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides maternity leave for women ?
(A)      Article 40
(B)      Article 41
(C)      Article 42
(D)      Article 44

56. One of the following sections of IPC deals with cruelty :
(A)      Section 354
(B)      Section 376
(C)      Section 498A
(D)      Section 508

57. Catharsis means
(A)      Ventilation
(B)      Psycho analysis
(C)      Behavioural modification
(D)      Problem solving

58. Which of the following is not a mechanism for settlement of Industrial Disputes in India ?
(A)      Labour Court
(B)      Tribunal
(C)      National Tribunal
(D)      Standing Labour Committee

59. Deterioration of mental functions caused by the loss of nerve cells in brain is called
(A)      Mental retardation
(B)      Delirium
(C)      Dementia
(D)      Depressive neurosis

60. The Token economy is a procedure in which
(A)      the patients are helped to understand their home economics.
(B)      the patients are given understanding of economic gains
(C) the patients are given generalized conditioned reinforce in exchange for performing certain target behaviour
(D)      the patients are helped to come out of the loss they suffered due to economic crisis.

61. Cost-benefit analysis relates to
(A)      Analysis of profit and loss
(B)      Program returns
(C)      Analysis of income and expenditure
(D)      Comparison between program costs with program effects.

62. Human poverty index is developed by
(A)      World Bank
(B)      WHO
(C)      UNDP
(D)      UNICEF

63. ‘Electra Complex’ is a situation found in
(A)      Oral stage
(B)      Annal stage
(C)      Phalic stage
(D)      Latency stage

64. The first social work text that used the world ‘supervision’, is
(A)      The New Practice of Supervision and Staff Development by Abels Paul A
(B)      ‘Group methods in Supervision and Staff Development’, by Abrahamson Arthur.C
(C)      ‘Supervision and Education in Charity’, by Jeffrey R.Brackett
(D)      ‘The MSW Supervisor : Problems of Role Transition’, by Abramczyk, Lois W

65. Who among the following suggested two tier system for Panchayati Raj?
(A)      Balwantrai Mehta
(B)      Ashok Mehta
(C)      Vasantrao Naik
(D)      None of the above

66. Sequence the following steps in social research :
(i)        Collection and analysis of data
(ii)       Conclusions and areas for further research
(iii)     Objectives of the study
(iv)      Review of Literature
Codes :
(A)      (iv)      (ii)       (i)        (iii)
(B)      (ii)       (iii)     (iv)      (i)
(C)      (iii)     (iv)      (i)        (ii)
(D)      (ii)       (i)        (iii)     (iv)

67. Which of the following is not a principle of Group Work ?
(A)      Appropriate modification of the group process
(B)      Indifferent attitude towards members
(C)      Enabling group members to involve themselves in the process of problem solving
(D)      Recognition of unique differences of each individual.

68. National Institute for the Visually Handicapped (NIVH) is based in
(A)      Hyderabad
(B)      Mumbai
(C)      Kolkata
(D)      Dehradun

69. “Each for all and all for each” is a slogan associated with
(A)      Panchayati Raj
(B)      Co-operation
(C)      Democratic Sprit
(D)      NGOs

70. Gandhiji’s Concept of Trusteeship is based on
(A)      The property should be privately owned.
(B)      The faith that human beings are not selfish.
(C)      The faith that human nature is very selfish
(D)      The use of wealth should be through legislative regulation.

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions as per the understanding of the passage (Question Nos. 71 to 75)

International social work is a discrete field of practice within social work that seeks to improve the social and material well-being of people everywhere. It is practiced across geopolitical borders and at all levels of social and economic organization. International social work also is development-focused and, as such, much of international social work practice occurs at the local, state and provincial levels within individual countries.

Globalization and the new wave of technological innovations, coupled with global interdependence between and among individuals, groups and nations are having a tremendous effect on social work education and practice throughout the world. With increasing global social problems, social work professionals are continuously engaged in finding solutions to both local and global problems. This trend is reflected in the social work profession’s involvement in a variety of international dimensions of practice and with various organizations concerned with global challenges and issues.

Some examples of levels of social work practice in the international arena include individual empowerment, group empowerment, institution building, community building, nation building, region building and world building. Social workers are also engaged in challenging the current trends in international social policies and programs that affect vulnerable populations. Examples of international social work practice include human rights, social development, advocacy, poverty and social justice, as well as responding to conflict, disasters and needs of displaced populations such as immigrants and refugees.

It is important to acknowledge that, increasingly aspects of international practice can be carried out within one’s own domestic environment. For example, the rise of migration and displacement has resulted in an increased number of social workers who may or may not identify as international social workers engaging with immigrant and refugee populations in their own counties. Consequently, whether social workers are working locally or outside of their home countries, they need to familiarize themselves with global affairs, and they must develop an internationally oriented multicultural competence to ensure effective delivery of services to vulnerable populations. Social work education therefore plays an integral role in ensuring the integration of international competence of its students and future practitioners.

71. International social work is
(A)      a practice of social work to deal with issues of international importance.
(B)      a practice with in social work that seeks to improve the social and material well-being of people across geo-political borders.
(C)      a practice of social work to impose international standards.
(D)      a practice to deal with international conflicts resolution.

72. International social work practice occurs
(A)      at international level only
(B)      at United Nations meeting and others meetings of international organizations.
(C)      at the local, state and provincial levels within individual countries.
(D)      none of the above.

73. What is the impact of Globalization on social work education?
(A)      Social work education prepare professionals with multicultural competencies to deal with global problems and finding solutions.
(B)      It has improved its standards and quality.
(C)      Commercialization of social work education.
(D)      None of the above

74. Social work practice in international arena include
(A)      Individual and group empowerment
(B)      Institution building
(C)      Community and Nation building
(D)      All the above

75. Which aspects of International Social Work practice can be carried out in domestic environment?
(A)      Migration and displacement
(B)      Refugees and immigrants populations
(C)      All vulnerable populations
(D)      All of the above

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- II, September, 2013

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:17:39 GMT

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objectives type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1.         Which one of the following is not an indicator of social development of a country ?
(A)      Infant mortality rate
(B)      Average life span
(C)      Incidence of litigation in the courts
(D)      Literacy rate

2.         The Child Marriage Restrain Act was enacted in the year
(A)      1929
(B)      1930
(C)      1931
(D)      1932

3.         The best example of verbal communication skill is
(A)      Good vocabulary
(B)      Competence in oral presentations
(C)      Fluent speech
(D)      Participate in training and research

4.         Acceptance is a principle of social work which implies
(A)      Accepting client in his/her appearance.
(B)      Extending warm welcome to the client.
(C)      Accepting the client as he/she is
(D)      Accepting the client’s version as it is.

5.         ‘Mongolism’ is the type of
(A)      Geographical division of land
(B)      Topographical structure
(C)      Mental retardation
(D)      A religious sect

6.         What is Anuloma marriage ?
(A)      Higher caste man marrying lower caste women
(B)      Higher caste women marrying lower caster man
(C)      Lower caste man marrying higher caste women
(D)      Lower caste women marrying higher caste man

7.         Identity v/s role confusion is the task of
(A)      Adulthood
(B)      Oral stage
(C)      Old age
(D)      Adolescence

8.         The Rio Earth Summit of 1992 dealt with the theme
(A)      Sustainable development
(B)      Climate change
(C)      Poverty reduction
(D)      Agricultural development

9.         Match the following names of the books given in List – I with the authors given in List – ii and select answer from the codes given below ;:
List – I (Book) List – II (Author)
a. Social Work Education and Social Work Practice in India     i.          B. Kuppuswamy
b. An Introduction to Social Psychology ii.         T.K. Nair
c. Social Group Work Practice iii.       Polansky
d. Social Work Research Methods for Helping Professions iv. Wilson and Ryland
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)      (iii)    (iv)     (i)       (ii)
(B)      (ii)     (i)       (iv)     (iii)
(C)      (iv)    (ii)      (i)       (iii)
(D)      (iii)    (iv)     (ii)      (i)

10.       Assertion (A) : Sigmund Freud claims that sex instinct is the source of all human endeavours.
Reason (R) : Social psychologists have tried to explain human behavior in terms of instincts.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true.
(C)      (A) is true, but (R) is not true.
(D)      (A) is not true, but (R) is true.

11.       Assertion (A) : Social work profession recognizes the family as an important system in its own right.
Reason (R) : The family as a unit is worthy of study and intervention.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D)      (A) is true, but (R) is false.

12.       Match the following :
List – I List – II
a.         Payment of Bonus Act        i.          1936
b.         Payment of Gratuity Act    ii.         1948
c.         Payment of Wages Act       iii.       1965
d.         Minimum Wages Act          iv.        1947
v.         1972
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)      (iii)     (v)      (i)       (ii)
(B)      (iv)     (v)      (ii)      (i)
(C)      (v)      (ii)      (iv)     (iii)
(D)      (ii)      (iii)     (v)      (i)

13.       Mandatory testing for HIV/AIDS can be done when
(i)       Government wants it
(ii)      One wants to know about HIV/AIDS patients in the population.
(iii)     Regular medical checkups are held
(iv)     During blood donation
Codes :
(A)      (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B)      (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C)      (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D)      Only (iv) is correct

14.       Which of the following does not threaten internal validity?
(A)      Maturation of passage of time
(B)      History
(C)      Instrumentation
(D)      Randomization

15.       The hypothesis by which the researcher not only asserts that the variables will be found to be related, but also predicts the direction of their relationship is called
(A)      One tailed
(B)      Two tailed
(C)      Null hypothesis
(D)      None of the above

16.       Match the following :
List – I (Event) List – II (Date of Observance)
a.         World Anti Tobacco Day                          i.          Jan 12
b.         National Youth Day ii.         May 31
c.         International Youth Day                           iii.       Oct 12
d.         World Girl Child Day iv.        Aug 12
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)      (ii)      (i)       (iii)     (iv)
(B)      (ii)      (i)       (iv)     (iii)
(C)      (i)       (iii)     (ii)      (iv)
(D)      (iii)     (ii)      (i)       (iv)

17.       The National Commission for Women was established in the year
(A)      1957
(B)      1986
(C)      2001
(D)      1992

18.       Kaka Kalelkar was associated with
(A)      Scheduled Caste Commission
(B)      Scheduled Tribe Commission
(C)      Backward Classes Commission
(D)      Minorities Commission

19.       The method by which the relative worth of Jobs in an organization is determined is called as
(A)      Job Description
(B)      Job Evaluation
(C)      Job Specification
(D)      Job Analysis

20.       Arrange the following Acts in order in which they were enacted. Use the code given below :
(i)       The ESI Act
(ii)      The Provident Fund Act
(iii)     The Maternity Benefit Act
(iv)     Workmen’s Compensation Act
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)      (ii)      (i)       (iv)     (iii)
(B)      (i)       (iv)     (ii)      (iii)
(C)      (iv)     (i)       (ii)      (iii)
(D)      (iv)     (i)       (iii)     (ii)

21.       Cognitive needs’ of Human beings are the needs
(A)      To develop abilities
(B)      For symmetry, order and beauty
(C)      For security and freedom from attack
(D)      To know, to understand and to explore

22.       ‘Learned helplessness’ is a concept based on
(A)      Unconditional positive learning
(B)      Social learning Theory
(C)      Hypothetical constructs
(D)      Psychoanalytic approach

23.       Match the following :
List – I List – II
a.         Social investigation report           i.          Medical social work
b.         Discharge planning ii.         Child guidance centre
c.         Workmen’s compensation iii.       Probation
d. Behavioural problems iv.        Social security
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)      (iii)     (i)       (iv)     (ii)
(B)      (i)       (iv)     (ii)      (iii)
(C)      (iv)     (iii)     (ii)      (i)
(D)      (i)       (ii)      (iii)     (iv)

24.       Which one of the following is not necessary for project formulation ?
(A)      Setting objectives and targets
(B)      Design of strategies
(C)      Identification of potential obstacles
(D)      Documentation

25.       FCRA stands for
(A)      Foreign Contribution(Rules)Act
(B)      Foreign Contribution(Regulation) Act
(C)      Federal Contribution(Regulation) Act
(D)      None of the above

26.       Match items in List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
List – I (Method)                                         List – II (Technique)
a.         Social case work                              i.          Funnelling
b.         Social group work                           ii.         Gherao
c.         Community organization iii.       Person situation configuration
d.         Social action iv.        Norming and Storming
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)      (ii)      (iv)     (iii)     (i)
(B)      (iii)     (iv)     (i)       (ii)
(C)      (i)       (iii)     (iv)     (ii)
(D)      (iv)     (ii)      (iii)     (i)

27.       Which one of the following is not a treatment group ?
(A)      Growth group
(B)      Socialisation group
(C)     Educational group
(D)     Study team

28.      Indecent Representation of Women(Prohibition) Act was enacted in year
(A)     1976
(B)      1986
(C)      1996
(D)      2006

29.      Which of the following governance mechanism is the highest body for policy formulation in NGO;s ?
(A)      General body
(B)      Managing Committee
(C)      Sub Committee
(D)      Chairperson

30.       match the items in List – I with items in List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Author) List – II (Method/approach)
a.         Octavia Hill               i.          Problem solving approach
b.        Murry G. Ross ii.         Social Group Work
c.         H.H. Perlman            iii.       Community organization
d.         Gisela Konopka        iv.        Housing reforms
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      ii          iii        iv         i
(B)      iii        iv         i           ii
(C)      iv         iii        I           ii
(D)      i           ii          iii        iv

31.       Objectively in research menas the willingness and ability to examine evidence dispassionately is called
(A)      spirit de corps of the scientific method
(B)      cours de philosophic of the scientific method
(C)      la carrier of the scientific method
(D)      sine qua non of the scientific method

32.       In participatory development, people’s participation is
(A)      an end, not just a means to development
(B)      only a means to development
(C)      neither an end nor a means to development
(D)      only a means not an end to development

33.       If the client persists in verbal attacks, the technique used is
(A)      Confrontation
(B)      Scanning
(C)      Fogging
(D)      Explaining

34.       ‘Power is gained whereas ‘authority’ is
(A)      acquired
(B)      possessed
(C)      imposed
(D)      nested

35.       The point where two axes intersect is known as
(A)      X axis
(B)      Y axis
(C)      Origin
(D)      Table

36.       The value that is repeated most often in data set is known as
(A)      Median
(B)      Mode
(C)      Frequency
(D)      Variance

37.       Who among the following is said that justice is crucial to understand human rights?
(A)      Peterson
(B)      John Rawl
(C)      Smith
(D)      Stephenson

38.       The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in
(A)      1944
(B)      1945
(C)      1947
(D)      1948

39.       Assertion (A) : Maintaining case-files is an important duty of a psychiatric social worker.
Reason (R) : Case files are important sources of data collection in mental health research.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

40.       Assertion (A) : Human Resource Manager have to be a good human being.
Reason (R) : Human values and ethics should be essential part of management education.
Codes :
(A)      (A) is correct and V is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      (A) is not correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

41.       Assertion (A) : When professional social work ingrains itself, in a practice modes, it can reduce the enormity of social problems in a given society.
Reason (R) : Unless professional social workers develop competences and convictions, they cannot address complex social problems
Codes :
(A)      (A) is true but (R) is not true.
(B)      (A) is not true but (R) is true.
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are not true.

42.       A set of guidelines that give direction to action by an organization or government is called
(A)      Social policy
(B)      Social planning
(C)      Social principles
(D)      Strategic planning

43.       Match the following fears with their technical names :
List – I                                                            List – II
a.         Hydrophobia                        1.         Fear of heights
b.         Nictophobia                          2.         Fear of darkness
c.         Acrophobia                           3.         Fear of Water
d.         Pyrophobia                           4.         Fear of fire
Codes :
            a          b          c          d
(A)      3          2          4          1
(B)      2          3          1          4
(C)      2          3          4          1
(D)      3          2          1          4

44.       Assertion (A) : Drug abuse has been on the increase.
Reason (R) : The control of family and intergenerational communication is declining.
Codes :
(A)      (A) is true and (R) is not true.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true.
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the explanation of (A)
(D)      (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

45.       The F-test is a
(A)      Parametric test
(B)      Non-parametric test
(C)      Discriminant analysis
(D)      Health status test

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions as per the understanding of the passage (Question Nos. 46 to 50)

History has led to vast inequalities, leaving almost three-fourths of the world’s people living in less-developed countries and one-fifth below the poverty line. The long-term impact of past industrialization, exploitation and environmental damage cannot be wished away. It is only right that development in this new century be even more conscious of its long-term impact. The problems are complex and the choices difficult. Our common future can only be achieved with a better understanding of our common concerns and shared responsibilities.

Poverty and a degraded environment are closely inter-related, especially where people depend for their livelihoods primarily on the natural resource base of their immediate environment. Restoring natural systems and improving natural resource management practices at the grassroots level are central to a strategy to eliminate poverty.

The survival needs of the poor force them to continue to degrade an already degraded environment. Removal of poverty is therefore a prerequisite for the protection of the environment. Poverty magnifies the problem of hunger and malnutrition. The problem is further compounded by the inequitable access of the poor to the food that is available. It is therefore necessary to strengthen the public distribution system to overcome this inequity. Diversion of common and marginal lands to ‘economically useful purposes’ deprives the poor of a resource base which has traditionally met many of their sustenance needs.

Literacy and a basic education are essential for enabling the poor to access the benefits offered by development initiatives and market opportunities. Basic education is therefore a precondition for sustainable development. A sizeable proportion (about 60 percent according to some estimates) of the population is not integrated into the market economy. Ensuring the security of their livelihoods is an imperative for sustainable development.

In several areas, desirable limits and standards for consumption need to be established and applied through appropriate mechanisms including education, incentives and legislation. Several traditional practices that are sustainable and environment friendly continue to be a regular part of the lives of people in developing countries. It is therefore important to evaluate and make development decisions which structurally lead to a more sustainable society.

46.       How can we achieve our common future in a sustainable development framework?
(i)       Understanding the long term impact of past industrialization.
(ii)      Preventing environmental damage.
(iii)     Understanding common concerns and shared responsibilities.
(A)      (i) and (ii) are correct
(B)      (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C)      (iii) and (i) are correct
(D)      (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

47.       What are central to a strategy to eliminate poverty and thereby ensuring sustainable development?
(A)      Industrialization
(B)      Exploitation of National Resources
(C)      Restoring natural Systems
(D)      Encouraging Market Economy

48. How does the survival needs of poor people affect sustainable development?
(A)      Diversion of common and marginal lands to economically useful purposes.
(B)      Poverty magnifies the problem of hunger and malnutrition
(C)      Continue to degraded the already degraded environment
(D)      None of the above

49.       What are essentials for enabling the poor to access the benefits offered by development initiatives and market opportunities ?
(i)       Ensuring security of livelihoods
(ii)      Improving literacy and basic education
(iii)     Encouraging unsustainable patterns of consumption
(iv)     Increasing purchasing power
(A)      (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(B)      (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C)      (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D)      (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct

50.       What needs to be encouraged to ensure sustainable development ?
(A)      Market driven technology
(B)      Environment friendly traditional practices
(C)      Consumption oriented economy
(D)      All the above

Social Work, Paper – I, September 2013

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:13:44 GMT

3. Means of grapevine communication are
(A)    formal
(B)    informal
(C)    critical
(D)    corporate

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(A)    ILO
(B)    ITU
(C)    UNDP
(D)    UNESCO

5. Referential framing used by TV a udience connects media with
(A)    reality
(B)    falsity
(C)    negativity
(D)    passivity

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(A)    non-pervasive treasure
(B)    limited judgement
(C)    autonomous virtue
(D)    cultural capital

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A)    effective
(B)    affective
(C)    cognitive
(D)    non-selective

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is
(A)    18
(B)    19
(C)    20
(D)    21

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A)    38
(B)    42
(C)    52
(D)    24

10.A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is
(A)    C
(B)    D
(C)    A
(D)    F

11.The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(A)    238
(B)    432
(C)    542
(D)    320

12.In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid Rs. 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid Rs. 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A)    236
(B)    240
(C)    248
(D)    256

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(A)    QRUWK
(B)    RQWUK
(C)    RWQUK
(D)    RWUKQ

14.Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?
(A)    Yadav
(B)    Arjun
(C)    Rajesh
(D)   Kamal

15.A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A)    If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B)    If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C)    If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D)    If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.

16.An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A)    making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B)    reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C)    remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D)    None of the above.

17.If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A)    Contrary
(B)    Sub-contrary
(C)    Sub-alternation
(D)    Contradictory

18.Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.
(A)    Garments, cloth and shirts
(B)    Cloth, garments and shirts
(C)    Shirts, garments and cloth
(D)    Garments, shirts and cloth

19.What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A)    All non-pessimists are non-atheists.
(B)    All non-atheists are non-pessimists.
(C)    All pessimists are atheists.
(D)    None of the above.

In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

20.In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?
(A)    2007–08
(B)    2008–09
(C)    2009–10
(D)    2010–11

21.Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?
(A)    Coal & lignite
(B)    Crude petroleum
(C)    Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D)    Total production of energy

22.Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?
(A)    Coal & lignite
(B)    Crude petroleum
(C)    Natural gas
(D)    Hydro & nuclear electricity

23.In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together?
(A)    2006–07
(B)    2007–08
(C)    2008–09
(D)    2009–10

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A)    net protocol
(B)    netiquette
(C)    net ethics
(D)    net morality

25.Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A)    Net ads
(B)    Internet commercials
(C)    Webmercials
(D)    Viral advertisements

26.Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A)    Internet society
(B)    Electronic society
(C)    Network society
(D)    Telematic society

27.GIF stands for
(A)    Global Information Format
(B)    Graphics Information Format
(C)    Graphics Interchange File
(D)    Graphics Interchange Format

28.Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A)    IBM AIX
(B)    Linux
(C)    Sun Solaris
(D)    Firefox

29.Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1.      Punjabi University, Patiala
2.      Osmania University, Hyderabad
3.      Kashmir University, Srinagar
4.      St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A)    1 and 2
(B)    2 and 4
(C)    2 only
(D)    4 only

30.Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1.      The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2.      It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3.      It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4.      It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A)    1, 2 and 3
(B)    2, 3 and 4
(C)    1, 3 and 4
(D)    3 and 4

31.Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1.      Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3.      Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4.      Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A)    1, 2 and 4
(B)    2, 3 and 4
(C)    1, 2 and 3
(D)    3 and 4

32.In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A)    Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B)    Assam and Nagaland
(C)    Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D)    Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

33.Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A)    1 and 2
(B)    1 and 4
(C)    1, 2 and 3
(D)    1, 2, 3 and 4

34.Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1.      UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2.      It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4.     It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A)    1, 2 and 3
(B)    1, 2 and 4
(C)    1, 3 and 4
(D)    1 and 2

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40:

I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from differ ent pol itical p ar ties and wom en’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.

In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Ar una Asaf Ali’s heal th began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35.Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A)    Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B)     Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C)    A Committee of Publicity
(D)    Women’s Organizations

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i)      Representatives from different political parties.
(ii)     Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii)    Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv)    None of the above.
Codes :
(A)    (i), (iii)
(B)    (i), (ii)
(C)    (i), (ii), (iii)
(D)    (iv)

37.Aruna earned respect because of
(A)    she identified with the leftists
(B)    she did not associate with any political party
(C)    chairing a Steering Committee
(D)    she identified with women’s organizations

38 .Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A)    Women Organizations
(B)    Leftists
(C)    Steering Committee
(D)    Some Political Parties

39.Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from
(A)    1985 – 2002
(B)    1998 – 2000
(C)    1981 – 2000
(D)    1989 – 2001

40.Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A)    Role of media
(B)    Economic justice
(C)   Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D)    All the above

41.A good teacher must be
(A)    resourceful and autocratic
(B)     resourceful and participative
(C)    resourceful and authoritative
(D)    resourceful and dominant

42.Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A)    Lecture method
(B)    Discussion method
(C)    Demonstration method
(D)    Question-Answer method

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is
(A)    Circular
(B)    Reciprocal
(C)    Directional
(D)    Influential

44.Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?
(A)    Placement evaluation
(B)    Formative evaluation
(C)    Diagnostic evaluation
(D)    Summative

45.Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?
(A)    Macro teaching
(B)    Team teaching
(C)    Cooperative teaching
(D)    Micro teaching

46.CLASS stands for
(A)    Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B)    Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C)    Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D)    Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools

47.Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
(A)    Single group experiment
(B)    Residual group experiment
(C)    Parallel group experiment
(D)    Rational group experiment

48.Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?
(A)    t-test
(B)    Sign test
(C)    Chi-square test
(D)    Run test

49.Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)    Both (A) and (R) are false.

50.Identify the correct sequence of research steps:
(A)    Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B)    Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C)    Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D)    Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection

51.Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(A)    Basic Science
(B)    Applied Science
(C)    Social Science
(D)    Literature

52.With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?
(A)    Univariate analysis
(B)    Factor analysis
(C)    Case studies
(D)    SWOT analysis

53.The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as
(A)    antecedent variable
(B)    precedent variable
(C)    predictor variable
(D)    control variable

54.Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling method ?
(A)    Simple Random Sampling
(B)    Stratified Sampling
(C)    Cluster Sampling
(D)    Quota Sampling

55.By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A)    20,000 MW of wind power
(B)    25,000 MW of wind power
(C)    20,000 MW of solar power
(D)    10,000 MW of solar power

56.Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?
(A)    Manas
(B)    Kanchenjunga
(C)    Seshachalam Hills
(D)    Greater Nicobar

57.Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A)    Agriculture
(B)    Hydroelectric power generation
(C)    Industry
(D)    Urbanisation

58.Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Biosphere Reserve)          List – II (Area of Location)
a. Nilgiri                                           i. Deccan Peninsula
b. Manas                                           ii. Chhattisgarh
c. Similipal                                       iii. Eastern Himalaya
d. Achankmar- Amarkantak iv. Western Ghat
Codes :
          a        b        c        d
(A)    i         ii        iii      iv
(B)    ii iii iv i
(C)    iii iv ii        i
(D)    iv iii i         ii

59.G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?
(A)    Mexico
(B)    Brazil
(C)    China
(D)    Korea

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A)    China
(B)    Japan
(C)    USA
(D)    India

Social Work, Paper – I, June 2013

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:11:18 GMT

Note :
•   This paper contains Sixty (60)multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
•   Candidate is expected to answer anyFifty (50) questions.
•   In case more thanFifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.

1. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format ?
(A)    Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B)    Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C)    Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi – Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D)    Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

2. A workshop is
(A)    a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B)    a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C)    a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D)    a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

3. A working hypothesis is for an
(A)    a proven hypothesis argument.
(B)    not required to be tested.
(C)    a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D)    a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known a s Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).

Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief-stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra for t were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A)    Burhanpur
(B)    Makrana
(C)    Amber
(D)    Jaipur

5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A)    Shah Jahan
(B)    Tourists
(C)    Public
(D)    European travellers

6. Point out the true statement from the following:
(A)    Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B)    Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C)    The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four- quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D)    The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.

7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A)    Mumtazabad
(B)    Mumtaz Mahal
(C)    Zainabad
(D)    Rauza-i-Munavvara

8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A)    1632 – 1636 A.D.
(B)    1630 – 1643 A.D.
(C)    1632 – 1643 A.D.
(D)    1636 – 1643 A.D.

9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A)    Farman
(B)    Sale Deed
(C)    Sale-Purchase Deed
(D)    None of the above

10.In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order ?
(A)    Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B)    Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C)    Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D)    Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

11.Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A)    Dr. Annie Besant
(B)    James Augustus Hicky
(C)    Lord Cripson
(D)    A.O. Hume

12.Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A)    Rajeev Gandhi
(B)    Narasimha Rao
(C)    Indira Gandhi
(D)    Deve Gowda

13. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A)    Entertainment
(B)    Interactive communication
(C)    Developmental communication
(D)    Communitarian

14.Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A)    Infotainment
(B)    Edutainment
(C)    Entertainment
(D)    Enlightenment

15. ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.
(A)    Sympathy
(B)    Empathy
(C)    Apathy
(D)    Antipathy

16.In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A)    UJHFS
(B)    UHJSF
(C)    JHUSF
(D)    HUJSF

17.In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A)    8
(B)    10
(C)    12
(D)    14

18.The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A)    110
(B)    270
(C)    105
(D)    210

19.The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A)    18
(B)    24
(C)    33
(D)    36

20.The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A)    30
(B)    85/2
(C)    170/3
(D)    110

21.If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
(A)    20%
(B)    30%
(C)    40%
(D)    50%

22.If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below :
(i)      All men are honest.
(ii)     No men are honest.
(iii)    Some men are not honest.
(iv)    All men are dishonest.
Codes :
(A)    (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B)    (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C)    (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D)    (ii), (i) and (iv)

23.Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?
(A)    Intelligence
(B)    Marks
(C)    Lessons
(D)    Wisdom

24.P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T ?
(A)    Wife
(B)    Sister-in-law
(C)    Brother-in-law
(D)    Daughter-in-law

25.A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A)    Lexical
(B)    Persuasive
(C)    Stipulative
(D)    Precisions

26.Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?
Statements :
(i)      Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii)     Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii)    In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv)    In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
Codes :
(A)    (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B)    (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C)    (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D)    (i), (iii) & (iv)

27.Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A)    unity in human nature
(B)    integrity in human nature
(C)    uniformity in human nature
(D)    harmony in human nature

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 28 to 33:

28.Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture ?
(A)    2005–06 & 2006–07
(B)    2006–07 & 2008–09
(C)    2007–08 & 2008–09
(D)    2006–07 & 2007–08

29.Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively :
(A)    1, 38 and 30 percent
(B)    30, 38 and 1 percent
(C)    38, 30 and 1 percent
(D)    35, 36 and 2 percent

30.Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A)    Fruits
(B)    Vegetables
(C)    Flowers
(D)    Total horticulture

31. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A)    Fruits
(B)    Vegetables
(C)    Flowers
(D)    Total horticulture

32.What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?
(A)    53 percent
(B)    68 percent
(C)    79 percent
(D)    100 percent

33.In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase ?
(A)    2006-07
(B)    2007-08
(C)    2008-09
(D)    2009-10

34.‘www’ stands for
(A)    work with web
(B)    word wide web
(C)    world wide web
(D)    worth while web

35.A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A)    Clusters
(B)    Sectors
(C)    Vectors
(D)    Heads

36.A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an
(A)    Compiler
(B)    Simulator
(C)    Translator
(D)    Interpreter

37.A Gigabyte is equal to
(A)    1024 Megabytes
(B)    1024 Kilobytes
(C)    1024 Terabytes
(D)    1024 Bytes

38.A Compiler is a software which converts
(A)    characters to bits
(B)    high level language to machine language
(C)    machine language to high level language
(D)    words to bits

39.Virtual memory is
(A)    an extremely large main memory.
(B)    an extremely large secondary memory.
(C)    an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D)    a type of memory used in super computers.

40.The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of
(A)    tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B)    tragic conditions of poor people.
(C)    degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D)    climate change.

41.Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A)    Ozone depletion
(B)    Hazardous waste
(C)    Climate change
(D)    Nuclear energy

42.Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant ?
(A)    Transport sector
(B)    Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(C)    Wetlands
(D)    Fertilizers

43.The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(A)    Oxides of sulphur
(B)    Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C)    Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D)    Oxides of sulphur and ozone

44.Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans ?
(A)    Earthquakes
(B)    Forest fires
(C)    Volcanic eruptions
(D)    Droughts and Floods

45.The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A)    2-3%
(B)    22-25%
(C)    10-12%
(D)    < 1%

46.In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved ?
(A)    OBC students
(B)    SC students
(C)    ST students
(D)    Woman students

47.Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC) ?
(A)    It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B)    It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C)    It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D)    It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.

48.Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
Statement :     Should India switch over to a two party system ?
Arguments :   (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A)    Only argument (I) is strong.
(B)     Only argument (II) is strong.
(C)    Both the arguments are strong.
(D)    Neither of the arguments is strong.

49.Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
Statement : Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections ?
Arguments :   (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage to the ruling party file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A)    Only argument (I) is strong.
(B)     Only argument (II) is strong.
(C)    Both the arguments are strong.
(D)    Neither of the arguments is strong.

50.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
1.      A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2.      He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3.      He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4.      He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    1, 2 and 3
(B)    1, 3 and 4
(C)    1 and 3
(D)    1 and 4

51.In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A)    The President
(B)    The Vice-President
(C)     The Prime Minister
(D)    The Cabinet Ministers

52.The black-board can be utilised best by a teacher for
(A)    putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B)    making the students attentive
(C)    writing the important and notable points
(D)    highlighting the teacher himself

53.Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A)    self study
(B)    face-to-face learning
(C)   e-learning
(D)    blended learning

54.At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A)    can teach children better than men.
(B)    know basic content better than men.
(C)    are available on lower salaries.
(D)    can deal with children with love and affection.

55.Which one is the highest order of learning ?
(A)    Chain learning
(B)    Problem-solving learning
(C)    Stimulus-response learning
(D)    Conditioned-reflex learning

56.A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A)    has control over students.
(B)    commands respect from students.
(C)    is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D)    is very close to higher authorities.

57.“A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should
(A)    use diagrams in teaching.
(B)    speak more and more in the class.
(C)    use teaching aids in the class.
(D)    not speak too much in the class.

58.A research paper
(A)    is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B)    contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D)    can be published in more than one journal.

59.Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’ ?
(A)    Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B)    Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C)    Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D)    Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.

60.Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability ?
(A)    Simple Random Sampling
(B)    Stratified Sampling
(C)    Quota Sampling
(D)    Cluster Sampling

Social Work, Paper - I, December 2012

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:09:04 GMT

Note :    This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.
1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A)    Communis and Communicare
(B)    Communist and Commune
(C)    Communism and Communalism
(D)    Communion and Common sense

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A)    Mass line communication
(B)    Group communication
(C)    Participatory communication
(D)    Dialogue communication

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A)    Transpersonal communication
(B)    Intrapersonal communication
(C)    Interpersonal communication
(D)    Face-to-face communication

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(A)    The Times of India
(B)    The Indian Express
(C)    The Hindu
(D)    The Deccan Herald

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A)    K.A. Abbas
(B)    Satyajit Ray
(C)    B.R. Chopra
(D)    Dada Sahib Phalke

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A)    Infotainment
(B)    Edutainment
(C)    Entertainment
(D)    Power equation

7. The missing number in the series : 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A)    240
(B)    220
(C)    280
(D)    210

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A)    80
(B)    100
(C)    90
(D)    110

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A)    4
(B)    15/2
(C)    15/4
(D)    6

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A)    AMSLR
(B)    MSLAR
(C)    MASRL
(D)    SAMLR

11.The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A)    30, 20
(B)    35, 15
(C)    38, 12
(D)    40, 10

12.Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A)    8
(B)    10
(C)    12
(D)    14

13.Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion– II and select the right code given below :
Assertion–I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves can not go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II : The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin- colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A)    Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B)    The assertion-I i s an argu ment but the assertion-II is not.
(C)    The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D)    Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

14.By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted ?
(A)    All men are honest.
(B)    Some men are honest.
(C)    No men are honest.
(D)    All of the above.

15.A stipulative definition is
(A)    always true
(B)    always false
(C)    sometimes true sometimes false
(D)    neither true nor false

16.Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?
(A)    Customer
(B)    Path-finder
(C)    Perceiver
(D)    Disciple

17.If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true ?
I.       All obedient persons are students.
II.      All students are obedient.
III.     Some students are obedient.
IV.     Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A)    I & II
(B)    II & III
(C)    III & IV
(D)    II & IV

18.Choose the right code :
A deductive argument claims that :
I.       The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II.      The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III.     If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV.     If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes :
(A)    I and II
(B)    I and III
(C)    II and III
(D)    All the above

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :

19.How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than 5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09 ?
(A)    One
(B)    Three
(C)    Five
(D)    All the above

20.In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate ?
(A)    2007-08
(B)    2008-09
(C)    2009-10
(D)    2010-11

21.Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures ?
(A)    North-eastern areas
(B)    Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C)    Information & broadcasting
(D)    Social welfare and nutrition

22.Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years ?
(A)    Information & broadcasting
(B)    Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C)    Labour and employment
(D)    Social welfare & nutrition

23.Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11 ?
(A)    Education, sports & youth affairs
(B)    Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C)    Social welfare & nutrition
(D)    Overall social services

24.Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10 ?
(A)    Labour and employment
(B)    Health & family welfare
(C)    Social welfare & nutrition
(D)    Education, sports & youth affairs

25.ALU stands for
(A)    American Logic Unit
(B)    Alternate Local Unit
(C)    Alternating Logic Unit
(D)    Arithmetic Logic Unit

26.A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A)    Microprocessor
(B)    System Board
(C)    Daughter Board
(D)    Mother Board

27.Computer Virus is a
(A)    Hardware
(B)    Bacteria
(C)    Software
(D)   None of these

28.Which one of the following is correct ?
(A)    (17)10 = (17)16
(B)    (17)10 = (17)8
(C)    (17)10 = (10111)2
(D)    (17)10 = (10001)2

29.The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.
(A)    .pdf
(B)    .doc
(C)    .docx
(D)    .txt

30…………………… is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A)    TCP
(B)    FTP
(C)    SMTP
(D)    POP

31.Which of the following is a source of methane?
(A)    Wetlands
(B)    Foam Industry
(C)    Thermal Power Plants
(D)    Cement Industry

32.‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A)    Lead
(B)    Mercury
(C)    Cadmium
(D)    Zinc

33.Biomagnification means increase in the
(A)    concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B)    number of species
(C)    size of living organisms
(D)    biomass

34.Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A)    Climate change
(B)    Ozone depletion
(C)    Hazardous waste
(D)    Biodiversity

35.The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A)    Solar energy
(B)    Nuclear energy
(C)    Hydropower
(D)    Wind energy

36.In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A)    a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B)    a ten- fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C)    two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D)    two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

37.Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index ?
(A)    Literacy Rate
(B)    Gross Enrolment
(C)    Sex Ratio
(D)    Life Expectancy

38.India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(A)    the U.K.
(B)    the U.S.A.
(C)    Australia
(D)    Canada

39.Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1.      The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2.      He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3.      He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4.      He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    1 and 4
(B)    2, 3 and 4
(C)    3 and 4
(D)    3 only

40.Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
1.      His Excellency
2.      Mahamahim
3.      Hon’ble
4.      Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    1 and 3
(B)    2 and 3
(C)    1 and 2
(D)    1, 2 and 3

41.Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency ?
1.      State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2.      Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3.      Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4.      Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)    1, 2 and 3
(B)    2, 3 and 4
(C)    1 and 2
(D)    2 and 3

42.Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I                                                                       List – II
(a)     Poverty Reduction Programme (i)      Mid-day Meals
(b)     Human Development Scheme (ii)      Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c)     Social Assistance Scheme (iii)     National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d)     Minimum Need Scheme (iv)    MNREGA
Codes :
(a)     (b)     (c)     (d)
(A)    (iv)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)
(B)    (ii)     (iii)    (iv)    (i)
(C)    (iii)    (iv)    (i)      (ii)
(D)    (iv)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)

43.For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(A)    ability to learn only
(B)    requisite level of motivation only
(C)    opportunities to learn only
(D)    desired level of ability and motivation

44.Classroom communication must be
(A)    Teacher centric
(B)    Student centric
(C)    General centric
(D)    Textbook centric

45.The best method of teaching is to
(A)    impart information
(B)    ask students to read books
(C)    suggest good reference material
(D)    initiate a discussion and participate in it

46.Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(A)    Argument
(B)    Information
(C)    Ideas
(D)    Controversy

47.“Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A)    punishment in the class should be banned.
(B)    corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C)   undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D)    children should be beaten with rods.

48.The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A)    Interpersonal
(B)    Mass communication
(C)    Group communication
(D)    Face-to-face communication

49.Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal ?
(A)    Impact factor
(B)    h-index
(C)    g-index
(D)    i10-index

50.Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A)    Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B)    Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C)    Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D)    Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.

51.Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability ?
(A)    Convenience sampling
(B)    Quota sampling
(C)    Judgement sampling
(D)    Stratified sampling

52.Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format ?
(A)    Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B)    Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C)    Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D)    Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

53.Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :
1.      Identification of research problem
2.      Listing of research objectives
3.      Collection of data
4.      Methodology
5.      Data analysis
6.      Results and discussion
(A)    1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B)    1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C)    2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D)    2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

54.Identify the incorrect statement :
(A)    A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B)    A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C)    Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D)    Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :

The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A)    Positive
(B)    Negative
(C)    Neutral
(D)    Unspecified

56.The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A)    30 million
(B)    40 million
(C)    50 million
(D)    60 million

57.The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A)    How well the situation has been managed.
(B)    How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C)    How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D)    How fast the environment has degraded.

58.Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life ?
(A)    Tempo of urbanization
(B)    Provision of basic services
(C)    Access to social amenities
(D)    All the above

59.The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A)    Extension of Knowledge
(B)    Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C)   Analytical Reasoning
(D)    Descriptive Statement

60.In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A)    The hazards of the urban life
(B)    The sufferings of the urban life
(C)    The awareness of human progress
(D)    The limits to growth

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- III, June 2012

Tue, 05 May 2020 06:02:59 GMT

Note : This paper contains fifty (75) objectives type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt All the questions.

1.   Field work in social work aims at
I.   Development of professional skills
II.   Integration of classroom learning with field practice.
III.   Development of service mentality.
IV.   Development of career orientation
Code :
(A)      I, II
(B)      I, II, III
(C)      I, II, III, IV
(D)      III, IV

2.   The goal of social work is
(A)      To reduce social tensions
(B)      To provide services to all
(C)      To promote social justice
(D)      To service the elite

3.   Arrange the following international years in the chronology of their observance (ascending order):
(A)      I, II, III, IV
(B)      IV, III, II, I
(C)      IV, III, I, II
(D)      I, II, IV, III

4.   Service rendered voluntarily by an individual or group to another individual or a group is called as
(A)      Professional Social Work
(B)      Social Development Services
(C)      Social Service
(D)      Social Reform

5.   Satyasodhak Samaj was founded by
(A)      Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B)      Ramesh Bandari
(C)      Jyoiba Phule
(D)      Anna Hazare

6.   Denotified tribes are
(A)      Untouchables
(B)      Ex-criminal tribes
(C)      Wandering communities
(D)      Artisans

7.   Which of the following is not an agent of social change in India ?
(A)      Industrialization
(B)      Population Growth
(C)      Spread of literacy
(D)      Sanskritization

8.   Assertion (A)   : Gender sensitive professional social workers have better understanding of Gender Specific Issues.
Reason (R)   : Professional social workers understand gender as a social workers understand gender as a social construct which differentiates men and women in terms of their positions in the society.
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(D)      (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

9.   Which one is not the approach of groupwise practice ?
(A)      Therapeutic
(B)      Developmental
(C)      Task oriented
(D)      Ornamental

10.   Spencer Hatch was associated with
(A)      Nilokhari Experiment
(B)      Firka Experiment
(C)      Etawath Project
(D)      Marthandam Project

11.   Arrange the following phases of PRA in a sequential order :
I.   Sharing the outcomes of PRA with stackholders
II.   Situational analysis and solution designing
III.   Rapport building and sensitization
IV.   Preparation of micro-plans
(A)      II, III, I, IV
(B)      III, II, IV, I
(C)      III, II, I, IV
(D)      II, III, IV, I

12.   The method of research used in census study is ____________.
(A)      Case Study
(B)      Survey
(C)      Quasi-experimental
(D)      Developmental

13.   A Research with limited understanding of the problem under study adopts ___________.
(A)      Experimental
(B)      Descriptive
(C)      Exploratory
(D)      All of the above

14.   A basic unit of analysis in a given research study is called
(A)      Respondent
(B)      Sample
(C)      Universe
(D)      None of the above

15.   The extent of difference between population parameter and sample statistic is called __________
(A)      Statistic
(B)      Sampling bias
(C)      Sample error
(D)      None of the above

16.   Sub-divided bar diagram is also known as
(A)      Pie-diagram
(B)      Histogram
(C)      Component Bar Diagram
(D)      Bar Diagram

17.   Match the items of List – I with List – II :
List – I              List – II
I.   Averages             1.    Correlation
II.   Averages of averages      2.   Measures of dispersion
III.   Variables    3.   Chi-square
IV.   Attributes     4.   Measures of central tendency
Codes :
     I    II    III    IV
(A)      4    2    1    3
(B)      4    2    3    1
(C)      4    3    2    1
(D)      2    4    1    3

18.   Arrange the following steps in a sequence :
I.   Designing the tool
II.   Review of literature
III.   Pretesting
IV.   Validation
V.   Application of the tool
(A)      I, II, III, V, IV
(B)      I, IV, II, III, V
(C)      I, V, II, III, IV
(D)      II, I, III, IV, V

19.   Assertion (A)   : Setting a hypothesis on a logical framework results in good research output.
Reason (R)   : Setting a rational hypothesis is a pre-requisite for fruitful research.
Choose your answer from the following :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is not true.
(D)      (A) is not true, but (R) is true.

20.   Arrange the following types of data in the order of their complexity :
I.   Interval
II.   Ratio
III.   Ordinal
IV.   Nominal
(A)      II, I, III, IV
(B)      I, II, III, IV
(C)      IV, III, I, II
(D)      IV, III, II, I

21.   Which one of the following is not an eological movement ?
(A)      Pani Panchayat
(B)      Chipko
(C)      Bhoodan
(D)      Pluck and Plant

22.   Assertion (A)    : Women’s participation in Natural Resource Management is essential for its success.
Reason (R)   : Awareness and empowerment of women will enhance their participation
Codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
(D)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

23.   Which one of the following is not an objective of social policy in India ?
(A)      Equality
(B)      Social justice
(C)      Inclusive Growth
(D)      Population Growth

24.   Which of the following is not a social legislation ?
(A)      Protection of Civil Rights Act
(B)      Beggars Act
(C)      Right to Information Act
(D)      Forest Conservation Act

25.   What is the theme of Prime Minister’s High level Committee popularly known as Sachar Committee ?
(A) Social, Economic and Educational status of Muslim Community in India.
(B) Imbalances in development of different regions in the country.
(C) Impact of double taxation on domestic economy.
(D) Social, economic and Educational status of the Rajput Community of India.

26.   Social Audit refers to
(A)      Security and analysis of the working of any public utility vis-à-vis its social relevance.
(B)      Audit of all the work done by the social sector.
(C)      Auditing of all the accounts of NGO’s
(D)      None of the above.

27.   Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Rights ?
(A)      Right to Work
(B)      Right to Constitutional Remedies
(C)      Right to Freedom of Religion
(D)      Right to Equality

28.   The oldest social security legislation in India is
(A)      The Workmen’s Compensation Act
(B)      Provident Fund Act
(C)      Maternity Benefit Act
(D)      Payment of Gratuity Act

29.   Which organization among the following publishes the records of accidental deaths and suicides in India ?
(A)      National Commission of Women
(B)      Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(C)      National Crime Records Bureau
(D) Census of India

30.   Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act was introduced in
(A)      2001
(B)      2002
(C)      2003
(D)       2004

31.   Which of the following is not a mechanism for settlement of Industrial Disputes in India ?
(A)      Indian Labour Conference
(B)      Conciliation Officers
(C)      Labour Courts
(D)      National Tribunals

32.   National Institute of Empowerment of Persons with Multiple Disabilities is located in
(A)      Chennai
(B)      Delhi
(C)      Mumbai
(D)      Hyderabad

33.   Assertion (A)    : Supervision in social work practicum, to be effective, should not be mere policing.
Reason (R)    : Supervision in social work is essentially an enabling process.
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is not true
(D)      (A0 is not true and (R) is true.

34.   Field work based approach is classified as
(A)      Empirical
(B)      Historical
(C)      Experimental
(D)      Biographical

35.   Match the following :
List – I List-II
(a)      Health Survey and Planning (i)   2007
(b)      Mental Health Act (ii)   1959
(c)      Atrocities against Women Act (iii)   1952
(d)      Hindu Code Bill (iv)   1987
Codes :
    (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (ii)    (iv)    (i)    (iii)
(B)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(C)      (iii)    (i)    (iv)    (ii)
(D)      (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)

36.   The concept of Management by objectives was introduced by
(A)      Mary Parket Foilet
(B)      Keith Davis
(C)      Peter Drucker
(D)      F.W. Taylor

37.   Job security would fall under which of the following needs ?
(A)      Ego
(B)      Social
(C)      Safety
(D)      Self Actualization

38.   360 degree feed-back is associated with
(A)      Recruitment
(B)      Selection
(C)      Performance Appraisal
(D)      Lay off

39.   Medical and public health social workers do not provide
(A)      Psychosocial support to individual and families
(B)      Help to care givers
(C)      Medical aid and diagnostic services
(D)      Support discharged patients in their rehabilation

40.   Shareholders, employees, customers, suppliers vendors and society constitute
(A)      Community
(B)      Organization
(C)      Stakeholders
(D)      Society

41.   Match the items in List – I with List – II :
List – I List-II
(a)      Manic depressive psychoses (i)   Bizarre behavior
(b)      Anorexia Nervosa (ii)   Speech deficit
(c)      Schizophrenia (iii)   Bipolar mood disorder
(d)      Aphasia (iv)   Fantasy of oral impregnation
Codes :
    (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (iv)    (iii)    (i)    (ii)
(B)      (ii)    (iv)    (iii)    (i)
(C)      (iii)    (iv)    (i)    (ii)
(D)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)

42.   Assertion (A) : Clients in metro cities demand problem resolution in a rational and effective manner in limited time.
Reason (R) : Education creates more expectation and counselors must become sensitive to result-oriented intervention
Select your answer from the following :
(A)      Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(D)      Both (A) & V are wrong.

43.   Urban Local bodies need to be strengthened by
(A)      Defining clear functions
(B)      Providing independent financial resources
(C)      Providing autonomy to take decisions
(D)      All mentioned above

44.   Match items given in List – I with those in List – II by selecting the correct code given below :
List – I Social Reform List – II Social Reformers
(a)      Widow Remarriage (i)   Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b)      Sarvodaya (ii)   K.C. Sen
(c)      Abolition of Child Marriage (iii)   Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
(d)      Sati (iv)   M.K. Gandhi
      (v)   Dayanad Saraswati
Codes :
        (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(B)      (v)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)
(C)      (v)    (iv)    (iii)    (i)
(D)      (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)

45.   Who coined the term conjugal family?
(A)      William J. Goode
(B)      Murdock
(C)      Cooper
(D)      Talkot Parsons

46.   Match the items of List – I with items of List – II :
List – I List –II
(a)      Patrilocal (i)   Living at brides residence
(b)      Matrilocal (ii)   Having own set up
(c)      Avanchulocal (iii)   Living at bridegroom’s residence
(d)      Neolocal (iv)   Living at brides maternal uncle’s residence
Codes :
       (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (iii)    (i)    (iv)    (ii)
(B)      (iii)    (ii)    (iv)    (i)
(C)      (iii)    (i)    (ii)    (iv)
(D)      (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)

47.   One of the following is not the reason for single parent families :
(A)      Death
(B)      Divorce
(C)      Desertion
(D)      Transfer

48.   Probation services entail
(A)      Leniency in correctional services
(B)      Institutional services
(C)      Community based treatment of offenders
(D)      Letting off of offender

49.   Which of the following is not an intervention method in the correctional setting ?
(A)      Group work and group therapy
(B)      Social case work
(C)      Entertaining guests
(D)      Family-centred counseling

50.   Consider the following statements and select your answer according to codes below :
Assertion (A) : Social defence is a broad concept that aims at defending society against crime by re-integrating the offenders back into the society.
Reason (R) : Social defence attempts to prevent the emergence of criminogenic situations through preventive programmes.
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true.
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is false
(D)      (A) is false and R is true.

51.   Which one of the following is not a challenge of managing urbanization ?
(A)      Sustaining the momentum of economic growth.
(B)      Addressing urban poverty.
(C)      Energizing cities to become engines of national development.
(D)      Separating rural from urban areas.

52.   Match the following :
List – I List – II
(a)       Enuresis (i)   Low achievements
(b)      School drop out (ii)   Threatening reality
(c)      A version to food (iii)   Poor mother-child
(d)      Day dreaming (iv)   Insecurity
Codes :
      (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (iii)    (ii)    (iv)    (i)
(B)      (iv)    (i)    (iii)    (ii)
(C)      (ii)    (iii)    (i)    (iv)
(D)      (i)    (iv)    (ii)    (iii)

53.   Match the following :
List – I List – II
(a)      Home visit (i)   Tool of learning and teaching
(b)      Face sheet (ii)   Evaluation
(c)      Process Record (iii)   Holistic assessment
(d)      Evaluative summary (iv)   Intake
Codes :
      (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)
(B)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(C)      (ii)    (i)    (iv)    (iii)
(D)      (iii)    (iv)    (i)    (ii)

54.   Match the following :
List – I List – II
(a)      Parole (i)   Dependence on court
(b)      Ticketless travel (ii)   Rehabilitation
(c)      Securing bail (iii)   Attending a family function
(d)      Vocational training (iv)   Petty offence
(v)   Institutional services
Codes :
   (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (iii)    (iv)    (i)    (ii)
(B)      (i)    (ii)    (v)    (iv)
(C)      (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (v)
(D)      (v)    (i)    (iii)    (i)

55.   What is the name of the market driven device under the UNFC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A)      Carbon Footprint
(B)      Carbon Credit Rating
(C)      Clean Development Mechanism
(D)      Emission Reduction Norms

56.   Mental health team approach is essential for effective therapeutic process in
(A)      Day-boarding schools
(B)      Maternity nursing homes
(C)      Child guidance centers
(D)      Recreational youth club

57.   Report on Correctional Administration 1951 (Government of India) was prepared by
(A)      Justice A.N. Mullah
(B)      Bureau of Police Research and Development
(C)      Sir Alexander Cardew
(D)      Dr. W.C. Reckless

58.   The First Model Prism Manual was prepared in the year
(A)      1919
(B)      1959
(C)      1943
(D)      2001

59.   Social work intervention with Elderly does not include
(A)      Providing psychosocial support
(B)      Arranging for treatment of health problems
(C)      Guiding group interaction
(D)      Distribution of clothes and sweets

60.   Match the following :
List – I List – II
(a)      Adjusting to marriage partner (i)   Young adulthood
(b)      Maintaining stable job (ii)   Mental deficiency
(c)      Genetic disorder (iii)   Middle years
(d)      Consistent career achievement (iv)   Late adulthood
Codes :
      (a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (iv)    (iii)    (ii)    (i)
(B)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(C)      (ii)    (i)    (iv)    (iii)
(D)      (iii)    (iv)    (i)    (ii)

61.   The major principles of social group work are
(A)      Progressive programme experience, guiding group interaction, specific objectives, Evaluation
(B)      Programme planning, development sequence, systematic study, frequency distribution
(C)      Group enhancement, specify learning, rejection study, development.
(D)      Planning, organizing, facilitation, evaluation.

62.   Parenting has become challenging because of
(A)      Disintegration of joint family system
(B)      Migration of rural population to urban areas
(C)      Women getting into gainful employment
(D)      All of the above

63.   Consider the following statements and select your answer according to codes below :
Assertion (A) : Jan Shikshan Sansthan provides vocational training courses to the marginalized for their empowerment
Reason (R) : Inclusion of SC and ST is emphasized as beneficiaries in Jan Shikshan Sansthan due to their disadvantaged position.
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not true
(C)      (A) is true and (R) is false
(D)      (A) is false and (R) is true.

64.   Balwantrai Mehta was associated with
(A)      Community Participation
(B)      Community Welfare
(C)      Community Development
(D)      Community Organization

65.   Who is the author of the book “Integrated Social Work Practice” ?
(A)      A.S. Desai
(B)      S.B. Desai
(C)      Murli Desai
(D)      S.K. Kinduka

66.   Which of the following is not the function of a hospital social worker ?
(A)      Fund-raising for financial support to deserving patients.
(B)      Counselling the patient and his/her family reluctant to undergo surgery.
(C)      Registering new patients and issuing OPD cards.
(D)      Facilitating communication between the doctor and the patient.

67.   The book on “Social Work : An Integrated Approch” was authored by
(A)      Sanjay Bhatt
(B)      Sanjay Bhattacharya
(C)      Surendra Singh
(D)      Sanjay Pandey

68.   The organized non-profit activity for public purpose outside of both market and state is called
(A)      Corporate factor
(B)      Civil society sector
(C)      Government sector
(D)      All the above

69.   Balika Divas in India is being observed on
(A)      9th October
(B)      9th November
(C)      9th December
(D)      9th September

70.   Life satisfaction is /an
(A)      Concrete concept
(B)      Abstract concept
(C)      Hypothesis
(D)      None of the above

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage (Q. Nos. 71 to 75) :

Poverty and a degraded environment are closely inter-related, especially where people depend for their livelihoods primarily on the natural resources base of their immediate environment. Restoring natural systems and improving natural resource management practices at the grassroots level are central to a strategy to eliminate poverty. The survival needs of the poor force them to continue to degrade an already degraded environment. Removal of poverty is therefore a prerequisite for the protection of the environment.

Poverty magnifies the problem of hunger and malnutrition. The problem is further compounded by the inequitable access of the poor to the food that is available. It is therefore necessary to strengthen the public distribution system to overcome this inequity. Diversion of common and marginal lands to ‘economically useful purpose’ deprives the poor of a resources base which has traditionally met many of their sustenance needs. Market forces also lead to the elimination of crops that have traditionally been integral to the diet of the poor, thereby threatening food security and nutritional status.

While conventional economic development leads to the elimination of several traditional occupations, the process of sustainable development, guided by the need to protect and conserve the environment, leads to the creation of new jobs and of opportunities for the reorientation of traditional skills to new occupations.

Women, while continuing to perform their traditional domestic roles’ are increasingly involved in earning livelihoods. In many poor households they are often the principal or the sole bread winners. A major thrust at the policy level is necessary to ensure equity and justice for them. Literacy and a basic education are essential for enabling the poor to access the benefit offered by development initiatives and market opportunities. Basic education is therefore a precondition for sustainable development. A sizeable proportion (about 60 per cent according to some estimates) of the population is not integrated into the market economy. Ensuring the security of their livelihoods is an impertative for sustainable development.

71.   Depletion of Natural Resources have adversely impacted dependent communities in terms of
(A)      Livelihood
(B)      Nutrition
(C)      Health
(D)      All of the above

72.   The symbiotic relation between the natural resources base and the local communities cannot be restored through
(A)      Participatory natural resources management strategy
(B)      Educating local people about conservation
(C)      Enforcing punitive measures
(D)      Finding alternative source of livelihood

73.   What role women do not play in the management of natural resources ?
(A)      As consumer
(B)      As protector
(C)      As collector of natural resource products
(D)      As destructor

74.   The livelihood problems of the poor can be reduced by
(A)      Ensuring equitable distribution of resources
(B)      Involvement in the protection of resources
(C)      Offering them charity and donation
(D)      Integrating them in market economy

75.   Any development project can be sustainable if it is
(A)      Environment friendly
(B)      People centred
(C)      Providing for future generation
(D)      All of the above

SOCIAL WORK, Paper- II, June 2012

Tue, 05 May 2020 05:58:00 GMT

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objectives type questions, each question carrying  two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Which one of the following is not a part of social case work process ?
(A)    Treatment
(B) Assessment
(C) Study
(D) Content Analysis

2. In order to find the degree of relationships, we have to use a statistical test called
(A)      T-test
(B)      Anova
(C)      Chi-square test
(D) Pearson’s correlation

3.   “Papers on Social Work – An Indian Perspective” was written by
(A)      G.R. Banerjee
(B)      G.R. Madan
(C)      Sachdev
(D)      Marula Siddaiah

4.   World Summit on Social Development was held in the year
(A)      1994
(B)      1995
(C)      1996
(D)      1963

5.   The Theory of Demographic transition includes
(A)      High birthrate and high deathrate
(B)      Rapidly falling deathrate and high birthrate
(C)      Low birthrate and low deathrate
(D)      All the above

6.   Pilot study refers to
(A)      Preliminary testing of the tools used for the research.
(B)      Follow up study done within a year after the original study.
(C)      Preliminary study conducted on a limited scale before the original study.
(D)      Macro level study undertaken to test the hypothesis.

7.   What Rights are Human Rights ?
(A)      Rights which are provided by Constitution of India
(B)      Rights which are Fundamental
(C)      Rights provided to all human beings by nature
(D)      Rights desired by human beings

8.   Diagnostic School of Social Case Work was developed by
(A)      Rose
(B)      Jung
(C)      Rank
(D)      Mead

9.   Public Interest Litigation refers to
(A)      Mechanism to provide justice out of the Court.
(B)      To provide speedy justice
(C)      To provide justice to poor, needy and weaker sections of society with the help of the
NGO’s and media.
(D)      None of the above.

10.   Paulo Friere’s approach could be briefly stated as
(A)      Organization of services for people.
(B)      Mobilization of community leaders.
(C)      Action-reflection process with people
(D)      Identification of target systems for work.

11.   Which of the following is not a social process ?
(A)      Accommodation
(B)      Acculturation
(C)      Annihilation
(D)      Assimilation

12.   Which of the following is a correct matching ?
(A)      Juvenile Justice Act - 1985
(B)      Untouchability Offences Act    - 1954
(C)      Dowry Prohibition Act - 1962
(D)      Factories Act - 1948

13.   Panchayati Raj Institutions in India have brought about one of the following :
(A)      Eradication of untouchability
(B)      Land ownership to depressed classes
(C)      A formal representation of weaker sections in village governance
(D)      Spread of education

14.   Who is the author of the book “Social Group Work – A helping Process” ?
(A)      Wilson G and Ryland
(B)      Trecker H.B
(C)      Philips H.U
(D)      Konopka G.

15.   The objective of Social Legislation is
(A)      To solve social problems.
(B)      To bridge the gap between current needs and existing laws.
(C)      To make new laws.
(D)      To review the laws and problems.

16.   Manifestation of repressed ideas in the form of finer things is
(A)      Sublimation
(B)      Ambivalence
(C)      Compensation
(D)      Fixation

17.   Who gave the concept of ‘Looking glass self’ ?
(A)      Karl Marx
(B)      G.H. Mead
(C)      C.H. Cooley
(D)      M.K. Gandhi

18.   ‘Operationalization of Variables’ in social work research means
(A)      Making the variables simple enough to understand
(B)      Making the variables measurable
(C)      Arranging the variables in a logical order
(D)      Making the variables fit for research.

19.   Which one of the following is not a correct matching ?
(A)      Arya Samaj -    Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(B)      Bhrahma Samaj -    Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(C)      Prarthana Samaj -    Ramabai Ranade
(D)      Satyasodhak Samaj -    Jyothiba Phule

20.   The book ‘Socail Diagnosis’ was written by
(A)      Mary Richmond
(B)      Joseph Luft
(C)      Perelman
(D)      Ross

21.   Assertion (A) : Panchayati Raj Institutions have provided women’s representation in Local self government institutions in Rural India.
Reason (R)    : Panchayati Raj Institutions facilities capacity building and empowerment of women.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong.

22.   Assertion (A)    : The protection of women by Domestic Violence Act, 2006 has increased the responsibility of the family.
Reason (R)    : The protection of women by Domestic Violence Act will further weaken the already weak institution of family
Choose    your answer from the codes given below :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(D)      (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

23.   Assertion (A)   : Professional prejudice is thwarting the growth of medical social work in India.
Reason (R)   : Lack of conviction on the part of the medical social workers is the reason.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(D)      (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

24.   Assertion (A)    : Most of the development programmes have failed in benefiting the target groups.
Reason (R)    : Developmental administrators lack the right approach and commitment.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

25.   Assertion (A)    : ‘All Human Rights for All’ cannot be realized without Right to Development
Reason (R)    : Right to development ensures the realization of human rights.
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

26.   Assertion (A)    : Reformation of crime convicts is possible with the appointment of professional social worker in prisons.
Reason (R)   : Professional social workers are equipped with knowledge and skills to del with such issues.
Choose your answer from the following codes :
(A)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct explanation to (A)
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation to (A).

27.   Assertion (A)    : Working with minorities requires that social worker has an indepth understanding of the effect of oppression on the minority groups.
Reason (R)   : Oppression of minority change the mindset of oppressed which requires the attention of social workers.
Choose your answer from the following codes:
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)       (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

28.   Assertion (A)   : Persons with low self-esteem tend to find fault with others.
Reason (R)    : Improper socialization is not the root cause of low self esteem.
Choose your answer from the following codes :
(A)      Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B)      Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C)      (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D)      (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

29.   Who pointed out that ‘development implies qualitative change’ ?
(A)      La Ban Vie
(B)      Vauden daele
(C)      Siegel
(D)      Piaget

30.   The correlation co-efficient tends to lie between….
(A)      0 to +1
(B)      +1 to +2
(C)      0 to -1
(D)      +1 to -1

31.   Human Development Report is published by
(A)      World Bank
(B)      ADB
(C)      UNDP
(D)      UNICEF

32.   Match the enactment of the following Acts with the years.
(a)    Mental Health Act (1)   1983
(b)    The Environment Protection Act       (2)   1984
(c)    Development Disabilities Act (3)    1986
(d)    Job Training and Partnership Act (4)    1987
Codes :
(a)      (b)    (c)    (d)
(A)      (2)    (4)    (1)    (3)
(B)      (1)    (2)    (3)    (4)
(C)      (3)    (4)     (2)     (1)
(D)      (4)    (3)    (2)     (1)

33.   Sequence the following steps of Community Organization process :
(i)   Identifying needs
(ii)   Exploring the resources
(iii)   Prioritising the needs
(iv)   Developing Programmes
Codes :
(A)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(B)      (i)    (iii)     (ii)    (iv)
(C)      (ii)    (i)    (iii)    (iv)
(D)      (ii)    (i)    (iv)    (iii)

34.   The sequencing is research process is :
(i)   Studying existing literature in a field.
(ii)   Generating new theories
(iii)   Analysis of the findings
(iv)   Synthesing ideas
Codes :
(A)      (i)     (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(B)      (i)    (iv)    (iii)    (ii)
(C)      (i)    (ii)    (iv)    (iii)
(D)      (i)    (iv)    (ii)    (iii)

35.   Put the following events in the order of their occurrence in a calendar year :
(i)   World Food Day
(ii)   World AIDS Day
(iii)   International Day for Elderly
(iv)   World Disabled Day
Codes :
(A)      (iii)     (i)     (ii)     (iv)
(B)      (iii)     (i)    (iv)     (ii)
(C)      (i)     (iii)     (ii)     (iv)
(D)      (i)     (iii)     (iv)     (ii)

36.   What is the sequence of PRA process ?
(i)   Sensitizing the team.
(ii)   Rapport building with target group
(iii)   Sharing the observations with target group
(iv)   Conducting the PRA.
Codes :
(A)      (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(B)      (i)    (ii)    (iv)     (iii)
(C)      (i)    (iv)    (ii)     (iii)
(D)      (i)    (iv)    (iii)     (ii)

37.   Match the following persons with the area of their association
(i)   Balwant Rai Mehta (1)   Marthandam Project
(ii)   Spencer Hatch (2)   3 tier P.R. System
(iii)   S.K. Dey (3)    Shantiniketan
(iv)   Ravindranath Tagore       (4)    Power to People
Codes :
(i)   (ii)   (iii)   (iv)
(A)      (1)    (2)    (3)    (4)
(B)      (2)     (4)    (1)    (3)
(C)      (2)    (1)    (4)     (3)
(D)      (2)    (1)    (3)    (4)

38.   Match the items of Last – I with List – ii.
List – I List – II
(i)   Mode (1)   Association of Attributes
(ii)   Mean Deviation (2)   Dispersion
(iii)   Chi-square (3)   Correlation
(iv)   Karl Pearson Method (4)   Central tendency
Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (2)   (4)    (3)    (1)
(B)      (2)    (4)    (1)    (3)
(C)      (4)    (2)    (1)    (3)
(D)      (4)    (2)    (3)    (1)

39.   Match the name of the activists given in List – I with the name of movements given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(i)   M.K.Gandhi (1)   Chipko Movement
(ii)   Vinoba Bhave (2)   Narmada Bachao Andolan
(iii)   Arundati Roy (3)   Bhudan Movement
(iv)   Sundarlal Bahuguna (4)   Constructive Programme
Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (4)    (2)    (3)    (1)
(B)      (4)    (3)    (2)    (1)
(C)      (1)    (2)    (4)    (3)
(D)      (2)    (3)    (1)    (4)

40.   Match the following names of the journals given in List – I with the institutions given in List – II
List – I
(i)   Indian Journal of Social Work
(ii)   Social Work Perspectives
(iii)   Contemporary Social Work
(iv)   Journal of Rural Development

List – II
(1)   Nirmala Niketan Mumbai
(2)   N.I.R.D Hyderabad
(3)   Tata Institute of Social Sciences Mumbai
(4)   Department of Social Work Lucknow University

Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (1)    (3)    (4)    (1)
(B)      (4)    (2)    (1)    (3)
(C)      (3)    (1)    (4)    (2)
(D)      (2)    (1)    (3)    (4)

41.   Match the following items given in List – I with the items given in List – II
List – I List – II
(i)   Creative thinking (1)   Body language
(ii)   Convergent thinking (2)   Team spirit
(iii)   Synergy (3)   Novel thinking
(iv)   Kinesics (4)   Responses based on reasons
Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (3)    (4)    (1)    (2)
(B)      (4)    (3)    (1)    (2)
(C)      (4)    (3)    (2)    (1)
(D)      (3)    (4)    (2)    (1)

42.   Match the following National institutes given in List – I with their places of functioning given in List – II.
List – I
(i)   National Institute of Orthopedically Handicapped
(ii)   National institute of Visually handicapped
(iii)   National Institute of Nutrition
(iv)   National Institute of Hearing handicapped

List – II
(1)    Mumbai
(2)   Kolkata
(3)   Dehradun
(4)   Hyderabad

Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (2)    (3)    (1)    (4)
(B)      (2)     (3)    (4)    (1)
(C)      (3)    (2)    (4)    (1)
(D)      (3)    (2)    (1)    (4)

43.   Match the following names of the books given in List – I with the names of the authors given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(i)   An Introduction to Social Work (1)    W.A. Fried Lander
(ii) Community Organization : Theory and practice   (2)   Skindmod and Thakrey
(iii) Social Case Work : Problem Solving Process. (3)   M.G.Ross
(iv) Introduction to Social Welfare (4)   H.H Pearlman
Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (2)    (4)    (3)    (1)
(B)      (2)    (3)    (4)    (1)
(C)      (4)    (2)    (3)    (1)
(D)      (1)    (3)    (2)   (4)

44.   Match the labour legislations given in list – I with the year of enactment given in List – II
List – I List – II
(i)   Industrial Disputes Act (1)    1948
(ii)   Provident Fund Act (2)   1952
(iii)   Employees State Insurance Act.   (3)   1961
(iv)   Maternity Benefits Act (4)   1947
Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)      (4)    (2)    (1)    (3)
(B)      (3)    (4)    (1)    (2)
(C)      (1)    (3)    (2)    (4)
(D)      (1)    (2)    (3)    (4)

45.   Match the name of the programmes/initiatives given in List – I with the year of inception given in List – II
List – I List – II
(i)   Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojan (1)    1992
(ii)   National Rural Employment (2)   1995
(iii)   World Trade Organization (3)   2000
(iv)   Millennium Development Goals (4)   2005
Codes :
(i)   (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(A)       (1)    (4)    (2)    (3)
(B)      (4)    (1)    (2)    (3)
(C)      (4)    (2)    (1)    (3)
(D)      (2)    (4)    (1)    (3)

Read the passage and answer the questions, that follow based on your understanding of the passage.
How one can promote inclusive growth ? There are elements – like the promotion of self-help groups, or the discussion about the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA), where it is claimed that this measure has been “highly inclusive”, with 51% to 56% of beneficiaries being SC-ST and 41% to 50% being women. In order to ensure that benefits of growth are more equitably redistributed, the government needs to make sure that the most marginalized remain in focus vis-à-vis all policies, like affirmative action. In other words, the entire gamut of social policies needs to be monitored in terms of their impact on the most marginalized sections, if inclusive growth is to become a real policy, instead of remaining a mere slogan. For instance, take the issue of food security. Here, if complex academic debates over counting methods and deflators result in a situation where large sections of poor people end up being classified as non-poor and therefore lose their eligibility for subsidized food grains, the high growth rates could co-exist with large scale immiserization of large numbers of, for example, SC-ST or Muslim populations. While the debates can (and should) continue, it might make more sense to move towards universalization of the public distribution system, with strict steps to lower corruption at all levels. Lowering hunger and malnutrition levels, especially among the most marginalized, would be an important step towards inclusive growth. However, the 12th Plan draft paper lacks a clear focus in this area, and reflects the pressures to move away from universal schemes towards targeted schemes, the latter being subject to a large number of errors, especially serious being those that exclude the really poor.

46.   Inclusive Growth primarily aims at :
(A)      Catering to the needs of weaker section on preferential basis.
(B)      Isolating weaker section from the main stream.
(C)      Promoting reverse discrimination.
(D)      Promoting anti-poverty measures.

47.   Inclusive Growth requires adoption of appropriate policies which cater to
(A)      Reducing corruption
(B)      Disintegration of disadvantaged section from others.
(C)      Holistic well being of marginalized section of the society.
(D)      Punishing ineffective government agencies.

48.   Food Security under inclusive growth refers to :
(A)      Import of food
(B)      Transfer of agriculture land to poor.
(C)      Mid-day meal for school children.
(D)      Provision of subsidized food grains for poor.

49.   Intended benefits of inclusive growth will lead to :
(A)      Personality development
(B)      Social disharmony
(C)      Socio-economic growth of the disadvantaged people
(D)      Malnurtition.

50.   One of the objectives of inclusive growth is to ensure
(A) To reduce insurgency and terrorism
(B) Protective discrimination in favour of weaker section in employment sector
(C) To resolve industrial disputes
(D) To check migration.

Social Work, Paper – I, June 2012

Tue, 05 May 2020 05:54:05 GMT

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
Incase morethan Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication :
(A)   Visual one way
(B)   Audio-Visual one way
(C)   Audio-Visual two way
(D)   Visual two day

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A)   Lucknow
(B)    Bhopal
(C)   Chennai
(D)    Mumbai

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A)   1926
(B) 1936
(C)   1946
(D) 1956

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?
(A)   NTCS
(B)    PAL
(C)   NTSE
(D)    SECAM

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(A)   Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B)   Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C)   Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D)   Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A)   Total Rating Points
(B)   Time Rating Points
(C)   Thematic Rating Points
(D)   Television Rating Points

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence ?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56 .................
(A)   60
(B)    64
(C)   72
(D)    70

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP...........
(A)   N
(B)    M
(C)   O
(D)    L

9. Given that in a code language ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A)   3
(B)    2
(C)   4
(D)    5

10. The basis of the following classification is :
‘first President of India’ ‘author of Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A)   Common names
(B)   Proper names
(C)   Descriptive phrases
(D)   Indefinite description

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself ’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A)   antisymmetric
(B)    asymmetrical
(C)   intransitive
(D)    irreflexive

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A)   (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B)   (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C)   (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D)   (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A)   1, 2 and 3
(B)    2, 3 and 4
(C)   1, 3 and 4
(D)    1 and 3

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :
“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A)   Lexical
(B)    Persuasive
(C)   Stipulative
(D)    Theoretical

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A)   Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B)   If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C)   Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D)   Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.

16.Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A)   represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B)   represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C)   represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D)   assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(A)   certainty
(B)   definite conclusion
(C)   predictive conjecture
(D)   surety

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :
1.     Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2.     A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3.     A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4.     An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’
Code :
(A)   2, 3 and 4
(B)    1 and 3
(C)   2 and 4
(D)    1 and 2
19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ?
(A)   B
(B)    C
(C)   D
(D)    E

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter ?
(A)   20%
(B)   25%
(C)   30%
(D)    33.33%

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A)   y can be exactly determined
(B)   y may be either of two values
(C)   y may be any of three values
(D)   there is no value of y satisfying these conditions

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A)   11 AM
(B)    12 Noon
(C)   1 PM
(D)    1:30 PM
The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below ;

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A)   6.79 GW
(B)    19.4 GW
(C)   9.7 GW
(D)    29.1 GW

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A)   29.1 GW
(B)    26.19 GW
(C)   67.9 GW
(D)    97 GW

For Blind Students Only
(Questions 23-24)
23. In a normally distributed data set, what percentage of data points lie between mean
+2*standard deviation ?
(A)   ~95%
(B)    ~68%
(C)   ~50%
(D)    37%

24. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations and 5 is the mean of a set of 3 observations. The mean of the combined set is given by
(A)   7.5
(B)    8.5
(C)   1 0
(D)    1 5

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(A)   Phone lines
(B)    LAN
(C)   Internet
(D)    a Server

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A)   American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B)   American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C)   African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D)   Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?
(A)   Pascal
(B)    Microsoft Office
(C)   Java
(D)    C++

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A)   3
(B) 5
(C)   8
(D) 10

29. Internet explorer is a type of
(A)   Operating System
(B)    Compiler
(C)   Browser
(D)    IP address

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(A)   One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B)   One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C)   One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D)   One does not need any telephone lines

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A)   Sulphur di-oxide
(B)    Ozone
(C) PAN
(D)    Nitrous oxide

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?
(A)   Thermal power plants
(B)   Automobiles
(C)   Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(D)   Fertilizers

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?
(A)   Clean Air
(B)    Fertile soil
(C)   Fresh water
(D)    Salt

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ?
(A)   Total dissolved solids
(B)   Coliform count
(C)   Dissolved oxygen
(D)   Density

35. S and P waves are associated with
(A)   floods
(B)    wind energy
(C)   earthquakes
(D)    tidal energy

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I                                    List-II
(i)     Ozone hole                (a)     Tsunami
(ii)    Greenhouse effect    (b)     UV radiations
(iii)   Natural hazards        (c)     Methane
(iv)   Sustainable                (d)     Eco-centrism development
Codes :
(i)      (ii)     (iii)    (iv)
(A)   (b)     (c)     (a)     (d)
(B)   (c)     (b)     (a)     (d)
(C)   (d)     (c)     (a)     (b)
(D)   (d)     (b)     (c)     (a)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(A)   Dharmashala
(B)    Shimla
(C)   Solan
(D)    Chandigarh

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A)   04
(B)    05
(C)   06
(D) 08

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A)   Freedom of Speech
(B)   Right of Equality
(C)   Right to Freedom of Religion
(D)   Right to Constitutional Remedies

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A)   Lord Cornwallis
(B)   Warren Hastings
(C)   The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D)   Sir Charles Metcafle

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1.     Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2.     To develop the scientific temper.
3.     Respect for the Government
4.     To protect Wildlife.
Choose the corect answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)   1, 2 and 3
(B)    1, 2 and 4
(C)   2, 3 and 4
(D)    1, 3, 4 and 2

42. The President of India takes oath
(A)   to uphold the sovereignty and integrioty of India.
(B)   to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C)   to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D)   to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A)   Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B)   Take care of him sympathetically in the class-room.
(C)   You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D)   Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?
(A)   Reliability
(B)    Objectivity
(C)   Ambiguity
(D)    Validity

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?
(A)   Overhead projector
(B) Blackboard
(C)   Epidiascope
(D) Slide projector

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(A)   Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B)   Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C)   Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D)   Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A)   helps students in becoming better citizens
(B)   imparts subject knowledge to students
(C)   prepares students to pass the examination
(D)   presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A)   Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B)   Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C)   The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D)   The students should be required to learn through activities

49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A)   Action Research
(B)   Empirical Research
(C)    Conceptual Research
(D)   Fundamental Research

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used ?
(A)   ibid
(B)    et.al
(C)   op.cit :
(D)    loc.cit.

51. Nine years olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A)   Vertical study
(B)   Cross-sectional study
(C)   Time series study
(D)   Experimental study

52. Conferences are meant for
(A)   Multiple target groups
(B)   Group discussions
(C)   Show-casing new Research
(D)   All the above

53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A)   The research is carried out after the incident
(B)   The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C)   The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D)   The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

54. Research ethics do not include
(A)   Honesty
(B)    Subjectivity
(C)   Integrity
(D)    Objectivity

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :
James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address o f the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. Th e judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutinty, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about Rs. 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from non-transparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power
(A)   by acquiring knowledge
(B)   from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C)   through openings
(D)   by denying public information

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A)   enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B)   to make the people aware of the Act
(C)   to gain knowledge of administration
(D)   to make the people Government friendly

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A)   to provide power to the civil servants
(B)   as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C)   a draconian law against the officials
(D)   to check the harassment of the people

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A)   extending power to the executrive authorities
(B)   combining the executive and legislative power
(C)   recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D)   educating the people before its implementation

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A)   It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B)   The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C)   It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D)   All the above

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are
(A)   Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B)   Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C)   Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D)   Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

UNIT-X, Social Development

Fri, 12 Feb 2016 06:34:05 GMT

Multiple Choice Questions

1.The book of ‘ India’s Economic Policy: Preparing for the Twenty first Century’ written by
   a)   Bimal Jalan
   b)   YV.Reddy.
   c)   Rangarajan
   d)   Man Mohan Singh
Ans :- A

2.New agriculture policy was started in the year of
   a)   2000
   b)   2001
   c)   2005
   d)   2010
Ans :- A

3.A person in normal health requires ______ calories per day
   a)   1000-1800 calories
   b)   2500-3000 calories
   c)   3000-4000 calories
   d)   4000-5000 calories
Ans :- B

4.Sex-ratio means
   a)    The relation between male and female
   b)    The ratio between the number of adult male
and adult female in a population
   c)    The ratio between number of female and
number of male in a population
   d)    The number of females per 1000 males in a
population
Ans :- D

5.Former president Dr.Abdul Kalam’s PURA refers to
   a)    A model for growth of the metro cities
   b)    Providing urban amenities in Urban Areas
   c)    providing urban amenities in rural areas
   d)    A plan for urban and rural areas
Ans :- C

6.Human Development Index is a composite of
   a)    Income, trade and investment indicators
   b)    Poverty, human rights and unemployment
indicators
   c)    Income, health and education indicators
   d)    Health, education and quality of life
indicators
Ans :- D

7.Yeshaswini programme in Karnataka State aims at
   a)    Assisting women in adopting family planning
methods
   b) Assisting women to earn wage income
   c)    Assisting rural and tribal women in health care
   services
   d)    Providing with health insurance facility for farmers
   co-operations
Ans :- D

8.Live births per 1000 population per year is called
   a)    Live birth rate
   b)    Birth rate
   c)    Crude birth rate
   d)    New population rate
Ans :- B

9.‘Chipko’ movement is associated with
   a)    Human rights
   b)    Women welfare
   c)    Religious activists
   d)    Environmental conservation
Ans :- D

10.Kothari Commission (1964-66) emphasized on
   A)    Expansion of Universal schooling
   B)    Non-formal and continuing education
   C)    Vocational education
   D)    Reading materials
Ans :- A

11.The programme aimed at enabling illiterate women to acquire functional skills, better awareness of health, hygiene and child care is
   A)    National Female Literacy Mission
   B)    Functional Literacy for Adult Women
   C)    Female Farmers Functional Literacy and Training
   D)   Total Literary Programme
Ans :- B

12.Which is the administrative authority controlling Juvenile Justice Board?
   A)    Police Department
   B)    Judicial Department
   C)    Prosecution Department
   D) Social Welfare Department
Ans :- D

13.What official committee is associated with the issue of corruption in India ?
   A)    Santhanam Committee
   B)    Malimath Committee
   C)    A. N. Mulla Committee
   D)    Krishna Iyer Committee
Ans :- A

14.Till what age can a woman prisoner keep her child, with her in the prison ?
   A)    Upto 5 years
   B)    Upto 7 years
   C)    Upto 9 years
    D) Upto 11 years
Ans :- B

15.HDI is entrusted with reference to :
   I. Life expectancy at birth
   II.    Real GDP/per capita
   III. Infant mortality
   IV. Morbidity
Codes :
   A)    I and II are correct.
   B)    II and III are correct.
   C)    III and IV are correct.
   D)    All the above
Ans :- D

16.Which of the following Committees has been set up in India for identification of BPL families in urban areas ?
   A)    Tendulkar Committee
   B)    Saxena Committee
   C)    Lakdawala Committee
   D)    Hashim Committee
Ans :- D

17.A Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme was introduced in the year
   A)    2001
   B)    2005
   C)    1998
   D)    1999
Ans :- C

18.The great sociologist who held the view that “education doesn’t bring about social change; rather the social change results into an educational change” was
   A)    McDougal
   B)    Aristotle
   C)    Durkheim
   D)    Dewey
Ans :- C

19.Which of the following is not a factor for social change in India ?
   A) Caste
   B) Regionalism
   C) Language
   D) Census
Ans :- D

20.Equality of Educational opportunities is possible by
   A)    Extending portals of educational institutions to all
     without any discrimination
   B)    Opening more educational institutions
   C)    Privatizing the education system in the country
   D)    Public funding of Education
Ans :- A

21.Match Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I Column – II
   i)    Chipko Movement    1.    Medha Patkar
   ii)    Narmada Bacchao 2.    Al Gore
Andolan
   iii) Climate Change        3.    Rachel Carson
   iv) Silent Spring 4.    Sundarlal Bahuguna
Choose the correct code :
Codes :
        (i) (ii) (iii)    (iv)
   A)    1         2         3         4
   B)    2         3         4         1
   C)    4         1         2         3
   D)    3 4 1 2
Ans :- C

22.Generally visually impaired persons have visual acuity of
   A)    2/200
   B)    20/100
   C)    20/70
   D)    20/200
Ans :- D

23.Assertion (A) : Poverty is essentially a social phenomenon and only secondarily a material or physical phenomenon.
Reason (R) : Poverty is the socioeconomic phenomenon whereby the resources available to a society are used to satisfy the wants of the few while many do not have even their basic needs met.
Codes :
   A)    (A) is false, but (R) is true.
   B)    Both (A) and (R) are correct.
   C)    Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
   D)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans :- B

24.The World Summit for Social Development (WSSD) was held in March 1995 in
   A)    Copenhagen
   B)    Helsinki
   C)    Hague
   D)    Vienna
Ans :- A

25.Human Rights Watch (HRW) was initially known as
   A)    Helsinki Watch
   B)    Human Rights Initiative
   C)    Human Rights Cell
   D)    Human Rights Time
Ans :- A

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UNIT-X, Social Development-Shanivaram Reddy. K

Fri, 12 Feb 2016 05:40:43 GMT

Introduction:
Social development as a process and an approach to social well-being is not an independent and autonomous concept. And further, social development strategies are not mutually exclusive, but can be integrated to achieve social development goals in conjunction with the dynamic process of economic development (Midgley, 1995:139).

The proponents of social development, on the country, refute some of the basic assumptions regarding the percolation of economic development effects to promotion of social development. The argument advanced is that economic development parameters of development paradigm in the developed as well as in developing countries have resulted in the creation of islands of prosperity in the midst of an ocean of poverty. The growth, in terms of material prosperity, has made ‘man’ an economic being, blunting his social sensitivities, freezing his finer instincts and emotions, converting him into a self-centered, selfish and self-seeking person oblivious of his social obligations to help all those who are run down in the race of development and whose lives are characterized by fear insecurity, want, dearth, disease and despair. The trickle-down effects of economic growth hardly reach the mass of pauperized persons. Had that been so, the developed western nations may not be having a substantial proportion of their population living in property.

In specific terms, social development goals aim at:
- Promotion of social progress and betterment of human condition based on human dignity, equality, respect, mutual responsibilty and cooperation.
- Placement of people at the centre of development and the economy at the service of human needs.
- Integration of economic and social policies to make them mutually supportive.
- Recognizing that sound and broad-based economic policies are necessary foundation to achieve sustainable social development
- Promotion of a just distribution of income and access to resources through equity and equality of all levels
- Strengthening of civil society and enabling people to achieve satisfaction of basic needs and to realize their dignity, safety and creativity.
- Empowering people to strengthen own capacities.

The characteristics of social development:
(a) The needs and aspirations of all people;
(b) Their empowerment to maximize their capacities, resources and opportunities;
(c) Enhancement of people’s rights, resources and potentialities to enable them to lead satisfying lives and contribute to the well-being of their families, their communities and to their society at large;
(d) A fair distribution of the benefit of development;
(e) Facilitation of structural changes; and
(f) Promotion of a development perspective in social welfare.

Given the social and econamic inequalities and the unsatisfactory conditions of life for a development substantially large section of society, the social science discourse on deveolpment paradigms conceives social development as a true indicator of human development.The preferred visions of development desires that human development should occupy a centre stage and should emerge as an ultimate goal of development planing. Large number of our social science writing have shown preference for that vision of development which results in the enhancement of the quality of life (in both moral and material sense), especially for the resource-poor sections of society,whose basic needs often remain numet and whose social and econamic empowerment is an avowed objective of development planing.The development debete tn the early eighties shifted to social aspects of development,as is being currently examined in the social science literature.

In recent years there has appeared a lot of literature on social development and the subject has been discussed at length in the world summit on social development held in march 1995 at copenhagen.The documents arising out of the summit, when read along with our own writings on social development, underscore the fact that social development, while being an old concept (Dube,1994;83) has acquired new meanings and messages. It is apparently more comprehensive than economic development. The term social development. As understood in the UN quarters broadly refers to improvements in human well-being, to development that it not strictly economic or market driven, and to improvements in the quantity and quality of public or social sevices.

The Central Tenets of Social Development are:

Economic growth is an essential but not sufficient condition to ensure social development, and, strategies of development in order to be more relevant. Should focus on societies and not an economies.
Development should be human centred and broad-based,effecting equal opportunities for all to participate fully and freely in economic, social, cultural and political activities .
People are the ends and not the means of economic progress and development.
Economic growth should subserve the cause of social development and ensure that development has a human face.
Social development and economic progress are mutually reinforcing- social development helps reduce economic inequalities and bolsters economic growth and equitable growth creates jobs and reduces poverty.

In the light of its central tenets,social development requires modification conducive to eradiation of poverty, promotion of productive employment and acceleration of social integration (UNESCO,1994:9). It means policies and programmes to reduce and eliminate polarization of societies, social exclusion, unemployment and poverty and to provide opportunities for the disadvantaged persons and groups to improve their living conditions (UNESCO,1994:10).

The aim of social development is to effect social well-being, i.e., the ability of every human being to satisfy his/her basic needs and achieve a satisfactory quality of life within the environment of equity, social justice and human dignity.

Social development calls for strategic investment in health, education and social services, and necessitates access of the underprivileged to means of economic well-being.

Sound and broad-based economic policies with sufficient social safegruads and necessery foundation to achieve sustained social development.

In connection with social development, two allied concepts,namely, ‘human deveopment’ and ‘sustainable human development’ find frequent mention in the current social development debate,especially when the issue of sustainability is raised.

Human development tended to be equated to with human resource years that human development has taken on a deeper meaning by recognizing that development is sustainable only when human being are increasingly capable of taking charge of their destiny.

The concept of human development implies people centred development, a development that is focused o people, their needs and aspiration. The ultimate objective of development is to improve human well-being and the quality of people’s lives.

The concept of sustainable human development lays emphasis on the development of social capital in conjunction with the development of physical capital.The argument is that without social capital other froms of capital cannot be mentioned or used properly. The concept of social capital is helpful because it identifies a founction of social structure . social capital is considered the key to more humane and sustainable form of development , a development that improves the ability of the collectivity to make decision . The concept of social capital emphasizes the empowerment of the disadvantaged people, suggesting their involvement in decisions affecting their life.

Meaning of Sustainable Development:
The concept of sustainable development offers an alternative design for development, which by definition, should be environmentally benign and eco-friendly. It implies that productive assets available to future generations should not be unfairly diminished. It highlights symbiotic relationship between consumerist human race and productive national systems. It suggests that a healthy environment is essential to sustainable development and healthy economy. It tells that economic development which erodes natural capital is often not successful. It further implies that environmental mistakes need not be repeated, as past patterns of environmental degradation are not inevitable.

The term sustainable development was brought into common use by the World commission on Environment and development (the Brundtland commission) in its seminal report (1987) called Our Common Future.

A review of these definitions suggests that despite a wide acceptance of the concept of sustainable development no single definition is yet available which everybody accepts (De Groote, 1987:123), and hence, ecologists, Conservationists and economists, all have different views. Barbier (1987) aptly summed up the situation-the totality of sustainable development is yet difficult to grasp analytically. How-ever, it clearly appears that most of definitions are built upon the view expressed by the Brundtland commission: “sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs (world commission, 1987)”.this definition contains within it two concepts:

(1) The concept of ‘needs’, especially the essential needs of the world’s poor to which overriding priority should be given; and

(2) The idea of limitations imposed by the state of technology and social organization on the environmental ability to meet present and future needs (world commission on environment and development (1987:43).

Principles of Sustainable Development:

That it is an alternative design for development, which, by definition should be environmentally benign and eco-friendly.
That the present generation should meet its needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs, i.e., to ensure that the productive assets available to future generations are not unfairly diminished.
That those who enjoy the fruits of economic development today must not future generation worse off by excessively degrading the earth’s exhaustible resources and polluting the earth’s ecology and environment.
That there is a symbiotic relationship between consumerist human race and producer natural systems.
That environment and development are not mutually exclusive-healthy environment is essential to development and healthy economy.
That economic development which erodes natural capital is often not successful.
That environmental mistakes of the past need not be repeated, as past patterns of environmental degradation are not inevitable.
That development is not growth only, it should stand for broader goals of social transformation.
That sustainable development in the long run has to do with ecology, resources and people, along with their service agencies, institutions and other aspects of their social organization.
That sustainable development has two major aspects-internally sustainable development and externally sustainable development –without both, no real sustainable development exist.
That sustainable development is accountable to the poor and hence, it should ensure that the poor have adequate access to sustainable and secure livelihoods.

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Unit-ix, social justice

Tue, 09 Feb 2016 12:51:24 GMT

Multiple Choice Questions

1. ……are distinct forms of ‘Justice’ in Indian constitution.
   a)   Justice, empowerment, well being
   b)   Social, economical, political
   c)   Social, Psychological, emotional
   d)   Social, educational, judicial
Ans :- B

2. Social Problems are treated with Social reform and……
   a)   Social legislation.
   b)   Social work
   c)   Social science
   d)   Social service
Ans :- A

3. Social justice is the balance between…..
   a) Individual’s rights and social control
   b)   Society and individual
   c)   Fundamental rights and judicial system
   d)   Individual and family
Ans :- A

4. According to the Supreme Court of India, social justice
   a)   as a living concept of revolutionary import
   b)   judicial mechanism
   c)   social control measure
   d)   Social defense
Ans :- A

5. The primary goal of a welfare state is to achieve
   a)   Social Justice
   b)   Freedom to all
   c)   Employment to all
   d)   Political justice
Ans :- A

6. The concept of social justice has emerged out of a process of……….?
   a)   Individual rights
   b)   Social practices
   c)   social norms, order, law and morality
   d)   Religion, caste and community
Ans :- C

7. The term social justice was first used in the year
   a)   1840
   b)   1856
   c)   1948
   d)   1950
Ans :- A

8. Social welfare policies were first introduced in India in the year_________.
   a)   1972
   b)   1951
   c)   1947
   d)   1851
Ans :- A

9. The term social justice was first used by
   a)   Sicilian priest, Luigi Taparelli d’Azeglio,
   b)   M. Gandhi
   c)   Dr. BR. Ambedkar
   d)   Raja ram Mohan Roy
Ans :- A

10.The concept of social justice is a ………which provides meaning and significance to life and makes the rule of law dynamic.
   a)   revolutionary concept
   b)   old age concept
   c)   young old concept
   d)   new concept
Ans :- A

11.'justice’ was used as equivalent to ‘Righteousness’
   a)   true
   b)   false
   c)   partially true
   d)   partially wrong
Ans :- A

12.What does Social justice denotes?
   a)   equal treatment of all citizens without any social
     distinction
   b)   equal distribution of wealth
   c)   equal participation of women in politics
   d)   equal employment opportunities between men and
     women
Ans :- A

13.Which one of the following is called as a foundation stone of Indian Constitution?
   a)   Preamble
   b)   Legislations
   c)   Articles
   d)   Social justice
Ans :- D

14.What was the percentage of literate people at
   the time of independence?
   a)   12%
   b)   14%
   c)   16%
   d)   18%
Ans :- B

15.Minimum needs programme was introduced during the________.
   a.   fifth five year plan
   b.   second five year plan
   c.   fourth five year plan
   d.   sixth five year plan
Ans :- A

16.Which one of the following is not an objective of social justice?
   a)   To ensure that ‘Rule of Law’ prevails in society
   b)   To ensure equality of outcome
   c)   To prevent abuse and exploitation of weaker and
     vulnerable sections.
   d)   To form social legislations to only marginalized
   groups
Ans :- A

17.Match the followings
   a)   The principle       i)    demands of upholding
of human dignity and defending human
dignity
   b)   The principle of   ii) all the conditions of
respect for society and the goods
human life
   c)   The principle       iii) proscriptive and
of rights and cautionary ways
responsibilities
   d)   The principle        iv) human beings are
of the common presumed to be free and
good responsible persons
Codes
   a)   a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
   b)   a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii.
   c)   a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
   d)   a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Ans :- A

18.Distributive justice is combination of ......?
   a)   rights and duties
   b)   constitutional remedies and social system
   c)   social and economical justice
   d)   community and society
Ans :- C

19.When was the World Summit for Social Development held?
   a) 1999
   b) 1986
   c) 1995
   d) 2001
Ans :- C

20.Which summit was adopted the Copenhagen Declaration and Programme of Action?
   a)   World social justice summit
   b)   International summit for social development
   c)   World Summit for Social Development
   d)   World Summit for international justice
Ans :- C

21.The term weaker section, or backward classes are use for the people who are____________
   a)   socially or educationally backward
   b)   socially or economically backward
   c)   social or political backwardness
   d)   social or culture backwardness
Ans :- A

22.Which Articles in Indian constitution refers the concept of Distributive justice?
   a)   Articles 38 and 39
   b)   Articles 33 and 34
   c)   Articles 44 and 45
   d)   Articles 58 and 59
Ans :- A

23.“The existence of opportunities for meaningful work and employment” is called as
   a)   Social equality
   b)   Social equity
   c)   Economical and social equity
   d)   Economic justice
Ans :- D

24.The term “The qualities on ‘just’ (or virtuous) man” is related …….?
   a)   Orthodox concept of social justice
   b)   Ancient concept of social justice
   c)   Neo-modern concept of social justice
   d)   Modern concept of social justice
Ans :- A

25.The term a ‘just-society’ is related to which one of the followings?
   a)   Orthodox concept of social justice
   b)   Western concept of social justice
   c)   British Indian concept of social justice
   d)   Modern concept of social justice
Ans :- D

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UNIT-IX, Social Justice-Suma K.G., LAXMAN TOLI

Tue, 09 Feb 2016 12:28:49 GMT

Introduction
The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble of Indian constitution embraces three distinct forms- social, economic and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. Social justice denotes the equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction based on caste, colour, race, religion, sex and so on.

Social justice is the balance between the individual’s rights and social control ensuring of the fulfillment of the ‘legitimate’ expectation of the individual under the existing laws and to assure him benefits there under and protection in case of any violation or enrichment on his rights, consistent with the unity of the nation and needs of the society.

The Supreme Court of India regarded the concept of social justice, as a living concept of revolutionary import, it gives sustenance to the rule of law and meaning and significance to the ideal of a welfare state”. Social Justice will undoubtedly involve or require the sacrificing of some rights of Individuals in the interests of society.

Justice is not merely right determination and adjudication of disputes and enforcement of Law, but is so comprehensive in its meaning and import that it takes within its ambit the whole of political, social, juristic and moral idealism. It is so, because Justice has reference to the whole of human existence which we want to realize by our thought, will and action. The mystery of Justice cannot be unraveled by human reason, logic or language completely. It has greater appeal to human soul. Justice as reality is only fully reflected in our conscience and felt through our intuition.

Social Justice is considered to be the primary goal of a welfare state whose very existence in turn rests on the parameters of justice, the greatest contrast, however, between ancient and modern thinking about the social harmony of justice is in the changed conception of individual personality in relation of law.

Concept of Social Justice:
The concept of social justice emerged out of a process of evolution of social norms, order, law and morality. It laid emphasis upon the just action and creates intervention in the society by enforcing the rules and regulations based on the principles of social equality.

The term ‘Social-Justice’ consist by two words: one is social and second is justice. The term ‘social’ is concern with all human beings who lives in society and term ‘justice’ is related with liberty, equality and rights. Thus social justice is concerned with, to ensure liberty, provide equality and maintain individual rights to every human being of society. In other words, to securing the highest possible development of the capabilities of all members of the society may be called social justice.

The term social justice was first used in 1840 by a Sicilian priest, Luigi Taparelli d’Azeglio, and given prominence by Antonio Rosmini Serbati in La Costitutione Civile Secondo la Giustizia Sociale in 1848. The concept of social justice is a revolutionary concept which provides meaning and significance to life and makes the rule of law dynamic. When Indian society seeks to meet the challenge of socioeconomic inequality by its legislation and with the assistance of the rule of law, it seeks to achieve economic justice without any violent conflict.

The ideal of welfare state postulates unceasing pursuit of the doctrine of social justice. That is the significance and importance of the concept of social justice in the Indian context of today. ‘justice’ was used as equivalent to ‘Righteousness’, since the beginning of recorded ethical and legal history. In 1918, Karl Kautsky wrote in the Dictatorship of proletariat: “Socialism as a means to the emancipation of the proletariat without democracy is unthinkable. Socialism is for us inseparably connected with democracy. No socialism without democracy.”

The concept of social justice consists of diverse principles essential for the orderly growth and development of personality of every citizen. Social Justice is thus an integral part of justice in the generic sense. Social Justice is dynamic devise to mitigate the sufferings of the poor, weak, tribal’s’ and deprived sections of the society and to elevate them to the level of equality to live a life with dignity of persons.

Social Justice is not a simple or single idea of a society but is an essential part of complex social change to relieve the poor etc., from handicaps, penury to ward of distress and to make their life livable for greater good of the society at large. In other words, the aim of Social Justice is to attain substantial degree of social, economic and political equality, which is the legitimate expectation and constitutional goal. In a developing society like ours, stepped with unbridgeable and ever widening caps of inequality in status and of opportunity, law is a catalyst, rub icon to poor etc to reach the ladder of Social Justice.

Meaning of Social Justice:
Social justice denotes the equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction based on caste, color, race, religion, sex and so on. It means absence of privileges being extended to any particular section of the society, and improvement in the conditions of backward classes and women. Social Justice is the foundation stone of Indian Constitution. Indian Constitution makers were well known to the use and minimalist of various principles of justice.

Social justice is a comprehensive enough to include economic justice as well as political justice, must be distinguished from both, just as component part from the whole, and distinguished.

In the border perspective, social justice deals with the regulation of wage, profits, protection of individual rights through the legal system of allocation of goods and resources. In different words social justice means availability of equal social opportunities for the development of personality to all the people in the society, without any discrimination on the basis of caste, sex or race. No one should be deprived, basis on these differences, because these are those condition which are essential for social development. Therefore, the issue of social justice is associated with social equality and individual rights.

Social justice can be made available only in a social system where the exploitation of man by man is absent, and where privileges of the few are not built upon the miseries of the many. The core element of social justice is equal social worth which required that citizens be guaranteed certain social rights as well as the civil and political rights.

The idea of social justice demands freedom, equality and other human rights to secure to greatest happiness and common good of human beings. The core concept of social justice is, ‘men are equal in their lives’, and they should enjoy equal freedom and rights in society. Thus the ‘social justice is an intrinsic virtue of society’.

Definitions of Social Justice
Social justice is defined as “promoting a just society by challenging injustice and valuing diversity.” It exists when “all people share a common humanity and therefore have a right to equitable treatment, support for their human rights, and a fair allocation of community resources.” In conditions of social justice, people are “not be discriminated against, nor their welfare and well-being constrained or prejudiced on the basis of gender, sexuality, religion, political affiliations, age, race, belief, disability, location, social class, socioeconomic circumstances, or other characteristic of background or group membership”. (Toowoomba Catholic Education, 2006).

Social justice is generally equated with the notion of equality or equal opportunity in society. Although equality is undeniably part of social justice, the meaning of social justice is actually much broader (Scherlen and Robinson, 2008). Further, “equal opportunity” and similar phrases such as “personal responsibility” have been used to diminish the prospective for realizing social justice by justifying enormous inequalities in modern society (Berry, 2005).

The international Webster new encyclopedic dictionary of the English language says ‘justice’ as equitableness, unprejudiced adjudication of conflicting interests on the basis of legal or moral principals; lawfulness; what is rightly due. The new oxford illustrated dictionary defines justice as just conduct fairness, exercise of authority in an maintenance of right, judicial proceedings, to treat fairly etc., as for the shorter oxford dictionary, justice, the quality of being(morally) just or righteous; the principle of justice dealing just conduct, integrity, rectitude.

Former chief Justice of India Gajendragadkar, the concept of social justice has dual objectives of ‘removing all inequality’ and affording equal opportunities and ‘economic activities of all the citizens. His view also emphasize to equal distribution of economic goods and opportunities.

Objectives of Social Justice:

To ensure that ‘Rule of Law’ prevails in society.
To guarantee ‘equality of opportunity’
To provide special opportunities to weaker and vulnerable sections.
To ensure equality of outcome.
To prevent abuse and exploitation of weaker and vulnerable sections.
To preserve the religion and culture of minorities.

Principles of Social Justice:
Social justice is a broader concept based on social, cultural, economical, and political status of a country. Principles are the vital bases for the formation of social justice strategies and achievement of social justice at all the levels of society.

1. The principle of human dignity
Every person regardless of race, gender, and background deserves dignity because we are made in the image and likeness of god. Dignity is a term used in moral ethical legal and political discussions to signify that a being has an innate right to be valued and receive ethical treatment. It is an extension of the Enlightment era concepts of inherent, inalienable rights. Dignity is often used in proscriptive and cautionary ways.

2. The principle of respect for human life
Every stage of life- womb to tomb- is worthy of our respect and protection. All individual human beings are presumed to be free and responsible persons and should be treated as such in proportion to their ability in the circumstances. Individuals with reduced autonomy are entitled to appropriate protection, according to the principles of subsidiary, human dignity, justice, charity, and vicarious consent.

3. The principle of rights and responsibilities
Rights: claims made on a society that help humans lead a truly human life.

Responsibilities: correspond to rights. The protection of human dignity is the foundation upon which an understanding of rights and responsibilities rests. The human person, made in God’s image and likeness, is born into a community of relationships and is social by nature. Rights and responsibilities are seen as the demands of upholding and defending human dignity in the social, economic and political spheres.

4. The principle of the common good
Social conditions that allow people to reach their full human potential, Common good consists of all the conditions of society and the goods secured by those conditions, common good presupposes respect for persons, it obligates public authorities to respect the fundamental human rights of each person. Society should allow each of its members to fulfill his or her vocation. In so far as it presupposes social welfare, the common good requires that the infrastructure of society is conducive to the social well being and development of its individual members.

5. Principle of Priority for the Poor and Vulnerable
A basic moral test of any community or society is the way in which the most vulnerable members are faring. In a society characterized by deepening divisions between rich and poor, the needs of those most at risk should be considered a priority. This principle advocates for living conditions conducive to the fulfillment of basic human needs and to promote social, economic, political, and cultural values and institutions that are compatible with the realization of social justice.

6. The principle of solidarity
We are one human family, whatever our national, racial, ethnic, economic, and ideological differences. An ethic of care acknowledging our interdependence belongs in every aspect of human experience including the family, community, society and global dimensions. Solidarity highlights in a particular way the intrinsic social nature of the human person, the equality of all in dignity and rights and the common path of individuals and peoples towards an ever more committed unity.

7. The principle of stewardship
It is incumbent upon us to recognize and protect the value of all people and all resources on our planet. While rights to personal property are recognized, these rights are not unconditional and are secondary to the best interest of the common good especially in relation to the right of all individuals to meet their basic needs. Stewardship of resources is important at all levels/settings: family, community, agency, and society.

8. Principle of Subsidiary
Governance structures in all levels/settings have an imperative role to promote human dignity, protect human rights, and build the common good. While the principle of subsidiary calls for the functions of government to be performed at the lowest level possible in order to assure for self-determination and empowerment, higher levels of government have the responsibility to provide leadership and set policy in the best interest of the common good.

9. Principle of Participation
All people have a right to participate in the economic, political and cultural life of society. Social justice and human dignity require that all people be assured a minimum level of participation in the community. It is the ultimate injustice for a person or a group to be excluded unfairly.

10. Principle of Promotion of Peace
In light of the human dignity and worth of all and the ethical imperatives of solidarity and stewardship, we are called to promote peace and non-violence at all levels – within families, communities, society and globally. Peace is the fruit of justice and is dependent upon the respect and cooperation between peoples and nations.

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unit-viii, social policy in india

Tue, 09 Feb 2016 12:15:00 GMT

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Who was the first professor of Social Administration, appointed at the London School of Economics?
   a.   Richard Titmus
   b.   Alcock
   c.   Miller
   d.   George
Ans :- A

2. Historically social policy relates to................
   a.   About interventions of a socially redistributive kind
   b.   Social regulatory kind
   c.   Social rights kind
   d.   All the above
Ans :- D

3. Social policy relates to .................
   a.   Guidelines for the changing, maintenance
or creation of living conditions those are conducive
   to human welfare.
   b.   Economic development
   c.   Political development
   d.   Religious development
Ans :- A

4. Social policy is concerned with ___
   a.   Intervention by governments and other
     organizations to meet human needs
   b.   Industrial development
   c.   Political development
   d.   Economic development
Ans :- A

5.According to Devereux and Cook, social policy intervenes in the following areas
   a.   Social sector and Social insurance
   b.   Social protection
   c.   Social service and social rights
   d.   All the above
Ans :- D

6. What are the objective of Social Policy?
   a.   Social change
   b.   Social integration
   c.   Improvement of quality of life
   d.   All the above
Ans :- D

7. Social policies deal with issues such as
   a.   Poverty
   b.   Poor housing
   c.   Disability
   d.   All the above
Ans :- D

8. Social policy is part of _____
   a.   Public policy
   b.   Economic policy
   c.   Political policy
   d.   Religious policy
Ans :- A

9. Social sector includes__
   a.   Health & Education
   b.   Water and sanitation
   c.   Housing
   d.   All the above
Ans :- D

10.The Central Social Welfare Board was established in the year____
   a.   1980
   b.   1970
   c.   1950
   d.   1953
Ans :- D

11.The first five year plans duration was.............
   a.   1951-55
   b.   1950-55
   c.   1955-60
   d.   1953-58
Ans :- A

12. Social insurance includes____
   a.   Pensions
   b.   Unemployment benefits
   c.   Disability allowances
   d.   All the above
Ans :- D

13. Social protection does not include
   a.   Food subsidies
   b.   Public works projects
   c.   Supplementary feeding
   d.   Alms
Ans :- D

14. Social services will not include
   a.   Care for vulnerable groups
   b.   Care for weaker section
   c.   Care for affluent
   d.   Care for needy
Ans :- C

15. Social rights will not include
   a.   Child
   b.   Labour
   c.   Women’s rights
   d.   Care for political section
Ans :- D

16.Welfare programmes based on Social Policy in India are not provided in one of the sectors mentioned below:
   a. Health
   b.     Entertainment
   c. Employment
   d. Education
Ans :- B

17.Which one of the following programmes is not based on Affirmative Action Policies?
   a.   Programmes to meet economic needs of poor
b.   Specific programmes for the development of
Scheduled Castes
   c.    Programmes for Industrial Growth
   d. Programmes for the Welfare of Women
Ans :- C

18.Assertion (A): The role of professional social worker is empowering and capacity building of the oppressed and marginalized sections of society
Reason (R): Professional social workers have requisite skill and sensitivity to deal with the problems of such sections of society.
   a.   Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
explanation of (A)
   b.   Both (A) and (R) are not correct
   c.   (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
   d.   (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
Ans :- A

19.Accountability in governance refers to
   a. The ability of citizens to hold leaders, government
   and public organizations to account
   b.   The ability of citizens to open accounts in the bank
   c.   The national income account that show profit and
     loss of the government
   d.   The behaviour of chartered accountants in
corporate banks
Ans :- A

20.Panchayati Raj institutes in India have brought about which one of the following?
   a. Eradication of untouchability
b. Spread of land ownership to depressed classes
c.    Formal representation of the weaker sections in
village governance
d.   Spread of education to the masses
Ans :- C

21.Which article of Indian Constitution lays down the provision of free and compulsory education for children?
    a. 45
     b. 46
    c. 47
     d. 48
Ans :- A

22. Probation means:
    a.    Release on licence
b. Release on bail
c. Conditional suspension of punishment
    d. Suspension of punishment
Ans :- C

23.Assertion (A): Social Workers working with minorities requires the knowledge and indepth understanding of the effects of oppression on minority groups
Reason (R): Social Workers are duty bound to serve the oppressed and marginalized
    a.    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
    b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
    c. (A) is true, but (R) is not true
    d. (A) is not true, but (R) is true
Ans :- A

24. Social Legislation attempts to
    (a) Justice as well as social security
    (b) Anticipate social needs
    (c) Provide for change in social order
    (d) All the above
Ans :- D

25.Institutional Redistributive Model of Social Policy is associated with
    (a) Capitalist State
    (b) Communist State
    (c) Totalitarian State
    (d) Welfare State
Ans :- D

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Unit-viii, social policy in india-Lakshman g sagar

Tue, 09 Feb 2016 11:17:16 GMT

Social Policy-Concept and Scope
An understanding of social policy is vital for engaging practically with social work values, dealing with political and ethical questions about responsibility, rights, our understanding of ‘the good society’. The concept of “social policy” has often been misunderstood or misrepresented in recent development literature, relegated a secondary order of importance after economic policy. It has been depicted as a reactive tool to address the social consequences of market failure or social casualties. This conventional view relates that social policy must concern itself with ensuring equitable access to social services such as healthcare and education and must also respond to social challenges and market failures by providing social security systems and structures to support vulnerable and marginalized groups in society. But social policy is much more than that. Within this understanding, social policy is an approach or an agenda to social equity that requires the mainstreaming of social equity concerns within all public policies and programs.

Social policy relates to guidelines for the changing, maintenance or creation of living conditions that are conducive to human welfare. Historically, social policy has been about interventions of a socially redistributive kind (from rich to poor, young to old), of a social regulatory kind (setting the ground rules of a market economy), of a social rights kind (delimiting the rights and duties of citizens with regard to access to services and incomes) (Deacon, Ollila Koivussalo and Stubbs, 2003).

Social policy is concerned with intervention by governments and other organizations to meet human needs. Social policy is essentially focussed on those aspects of the economy, society and polity that are necessary to human existence and the means by which they can be provided.

Social Policy is an interdisciplinary and applied subject concerned with the analysis of societies’ responses to social need. It seeks to foster in its students a capacity to understand theory and evidence drawn from a wide range of social science disciplines, including economics, sociology, psychology, philosophy and political science. Social Policy is focused on those aspects of the economy, society and polity that are necessary to human existence and the means by which they can be provided (Brooks, 1998).

Definitions of Social Policy:
Social policy is often defined as social services such as education, health, employment, and social security. However, social policy is also about redistribution, protection and social justice. The term policy, social policy too does not seem to have unanimity among the authors. Social policy is used in different contexts by different opinion like leaders, administrators, thinkers, philosophers and the scholars of social policy as well as other social scientists. The term social policy is not only used to refer to academic study, however, it is also used to refer to the social actions taken by policy makers in real world. So, social policy refers both to the activity of policy making to promote well-being and to academic study of such action (Alcock, Erskine and May, 2004).

According to Erskine (1998) “social policy is a discipline as well as being an area of practice. This is to point to a distinction, which is frequently confusing, between social policy as a field of study and social policy a set of policies adopted by government, local authorities and other organization to achieve social purposes”.

According to Levin (1997) “social policy refers to the practice of social intervention aimed at securing social change to promote the welfare and wellbeing of citizens. Many organization and agencies, and the people who work in or for them, are involved in formulating and implementing social policies”.

Rice (2000) says that “social policy is a broad term encompassing not only social welfare but other activities of government affecting social life. Social policy endeavours to affect the nature of the quality of life. It creates conditions which are intended to increase the welfare of, insure just treatment of individuals, and provide resources to those who, due to an inability to earn income, are unable to meet their own needs and reduce or, if possible, eliminate social inequalities through redistribution. Social policy in its broadest dimensions encompasses many areas: social welfare, health care, justice and corrections, culture, broadcasting and the arts, and native people, to name a few”.

According to Alcock (2003) “social policies are developed within societies to meet the needs for the welfare and wellbeing within the population”.

Richard Titmus (1958), was the first professor of Social Administration, who was appointed at the London School of Economics in 1950, says that “social policy as collective interventions to meet certain needs of the individual and/or to serve the wider interests of the society”. He believes that social policy is designed to provide welfare for citizens includes economic as well as non-economic objectives, involves some measure of progressive redistribution in command-over-resources from rich to poor.

According to Mecbeath (1957) “social policies are concerned with the right ordering of the network of relationships between men and women who live together in societies, or with the principles which should govern the activities of individuals and groups so far as they affect the lives and interests of other people”.

Pension (1962) point out social policy can be defined “as a policy which aims at a continual reform of society in order to eliminate weaknesses and constructs or ameliorates good situations”.

According to Kulkarni (1965) “social policy as the strategy of action indicting the means and methods to be followed in successive phases to achieve the declared social objectives”.

Marshal (1965) defines “social policy refers to the policy of governments with regard to action having a direct impact on the welfare of citizens providing them with sources of income”.

According to Hagenbuch (1958) “social policy is the desires to ensure every member of the community achieve certain standards and certain opportunities in the life”.

Gil (1973) avers, “Social policies are principles or courses of action designed to influence the overall reality of life in a society”.

The social work dictionary (1991) defines “social policy as the activities and principles of a society that guide the way it intervenes in and regulates relationships between individuals, groups, communities, and social institutions. Social policy includes plans and programs in education, health care, crime and corrections, economic security and social welfare made by governments, voluntary organizations and the people in general”.

After evaluating the above definitions one can conclude that social policy is defined as a series of public policies designed to promote social development, undertaken by a variety of actors through a range of instruments. It empowers individuals and community to be their own advocates for change.

Characteristics of Social Policy
The following are the characteristics of social policy (Wals, Stephen and Moore, 2003; Kennett, 2004)

Social policy is a subject as well as an area of practice
Social policy as an instrument
Social policy plays distributional and redistributive role
Social policy is the unilateral transfer of resources from one section of society to another section of society
Social policy has concern for weaker and vulnerable sections of the society
Social policies do not exist in isolation rather they are effective in relation to other policies. Hence, it is called Co-existence.

Objectives of Social Policy
To be precise, social policy has the following objectives (Singh, 2000)

Social policies aim to bring about social change. However, evolutionary and fundamental changes cannot be brought about by the social policy because such changes will threaten the very existence of the society, particularly the government which reigns on the principles of status quo.
Social integration: the objective of social policy is social integration, and to reduce social tension and alienation.
Improvement of the quality of life of its population.
Reduce cost of welfare
Tackle social problems, efficient, realistic provision of services for these needs.
Pursuit of equality through a variety of corrective measures
Decentralization and fragmentation of services.

Nature of Social Policy
It is an interdisciplinary social science subject that draws on ideas and concepts from sociology, politics and economics in particular. Social policy has traditionally been concerned with social welfare provision by the state. Further, Social policy is collective interventions in the society to influences the access to and the incidence of adequate and secures livelihood and wellbeing.

Social policy by nature played redistributive, protective, and transformative or development roles. Social policy as referring to policies, procedures, practices and values related to social welfare. In practice Social policies deal with issues, such as poverty, poor housing and disability that threaten or prevent well-being in families, communication and other social context. Social policies are the result of interaction within a whole system of social, political and economic factors.

Scope of Social Policy
There is no consensus on the scope of the social policy. The scope of social policy is vast and it includes the intervention of all the sectors by the Government.

Devereux and Cook (2000) views social policy intervenes in the following areas (5S):

Social sector: Health, education, water and sanitation, housing.
Social insurance: Pensions, unemployment benefits, disability allowances.
Social protection: Food subsidies, targeted safety nets (eg. Public works projects, supplementary feeding, income transfers).
Social services: Care for vulnerable groups and weaker section of society (people with disabilities, elderly people, orphan).
Social rights: Child labour, and women’s rights.

According to Burch (1999) in the following areas the scope of social policy is visible.

Direct human service: public and charitable.
Mutual assistance and personal welfare: both organized and informal.
Occupational welfare: employer-provided services and earned benefits.
Service for profit: as opposed to public and charitable purchase of service: to be delivered by others.
Tax welfare: public benefits given indirectly through tax subsidies (credits, deductions, deferrals) instead of budget expenditure.
Agents: indirect benefits to persons by influencing the behaviour of agents who affect the well being of target persons.
Environmental adjustment and enhancements: changing the system.
Enhancing the well-being: of corporations through direct expenditures, tax welfare, and in-kind services.

Steps in Policy Making:
According to Richard M Titmas (1958) the following steps are generally followed while formulating a social policy.
Step one: Feeling of need of policy making
Step two: Committee formulation to look into it
Step three: Collection of data and details relating to theory and model
Step four: Selection of alternatives and services
Step five: Formation of draft experimental policy
Step six: Inform to the people
Step seven: Final approval of the draft policy
Step eight: Enforcement and evaluation

Distinction Between Social and Economic Policies
Economic policy is concerned with the promotion of new economic system able by itself to raise productions and income levels of all in the society. Social policy is the planned intervention to improve the capacity of existing social system to cope with the demands of change and growth. The main purpose of social policy is to improve the conditions in regard to social environment, housing, health, nutrition, education, training, employment, working conditions and social security. But the expenditure on education, health, housing and the like are not merely means to social development, they are economic development. It thus, appears that social policy and economic policy are complementary to each other and have the same aim, i.e. enrich the social life of human being. They are also trying to achieve social and economic justice. If the economic policy is separated from social policy, economic inequality will appear at the scene.

However, it does not mean that social policy and economic policy are the same. Social policy is framed keeping in view of the beliefs, religion, attitude, behavioural patterns, traditions and interests of the society; whereas economic policy is chalked out on the basis of the availability of economic resources. Social policy gives importance to the change and improvement in social determinants of life where as in economic policy emphasis is given on the improvement of economic factors. The fields of economic policy are production, consumption, exchange and distribution, whereas social policy covers the field of education, health, rural and urban development, housing and welfare of the weaker and handicapped sections.

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UGC NET cut -off percentages

Tue, 09 Feb 2016 06:34:31 GMT

UNIT-II, Community And Society

Sat, 12 Sep 2015 11:33:19 GMT

Multiple Choice Questions-3

1. Social development has failed to make appreciable headway in India. The most common reason is :
a) Corruption
b)      Absence of rained manpower
c)      Unwilling beneficiaries
d) Absence of resources
Ans :- A

2. Strategic for achieving social development objectives include:
a) Growth with equity
b)      Minimum Needs Programme
c)      Neither of the above
d) Both of the above
Ans :- D

3. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was passed in the year:
a) 1971
b)      1961
c)      1978
d) 1981
Ans :- A

4. Panchayati Raj Institution in India has brought about one of the following:
a)      Eradication of untouchability
b)      Spread of land ownership to the Depressed
classes
c)      A formal representation of the weaker sections in village
governance
d)      Spread of education to the masses
Ans :- C

5. Socialization means:
a)      Developing friendship with unknown persons
b)      Ensuring equity in the society
c) The process of internalization of social norms
d)      The establishment of rapport with clients
Ans :- C

6. Denotified Tribes are:
a) Ex-criminal tribes
b)      Untouchables
c)      Wandering Communities
d)      Artisans
Ans :- A

7. Which of the following are the main causes of social change in India?
a) Independence
b)      Industrialization
c)      Education
d)      Sanskritisation
Choose the correct answer from the following:
a) 1, 1 and 3
b)      2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d)      1, 2 and 4
Ans :- D

8. The Practice of untouchability is abolished by the Indian Constitution in Article:
a) 17
b)      19
c) 38
d)      42
Ans :- A

9. Consider the following statements and select your answer according to the codes given below:
Assertion (A) ; Joint Family is disintegrating fast in Modern India.
Reason (R) : Transition from agrarian to Industrial economy is responsible for this disintegration.
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
b)      Both (A) and (R) true an (R) is the not correct
explanation of (A)
c)      (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans :- A

10. Consider the following statements and select your answer according to the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Peoples participation is essential for the success of developmental program.
Reason (A): Education and Awareness lead to participation.
Code :
a)      Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true an (R) is the not correct
explanation of (A)
c)      (A) is true, but (R) is false
d)      (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans :- A

11. Which of the following is not a principle of social case work?
a) Principle of Confidentiality
b) Principle of Acceptance
c) Principle of Assimilation
d) Principle of Self-determination
Ans :- C

12. Match the correct author with the book that he/she has written and select the correct answer by seeing the code given below:
Author
a)      Arthur Fink
b)      Gisela Konopka
c)      Murray G. Ross
d)      Helen Perlman
Books
i) Social group work – A helping process
ii)      Social care work – A problem solving process
iii) Community Organization
iv)     The Field of Social Work
v)      Integrated social work practice
Code:
a) b) c) d)
a) iv      i        iii      ii
b)      v       iii      ii       i
c)      i        v       ii       iv
d)      iii      ii       iv      v
Ans :- A

13. Which of the following is a Reference Group?
a)      Occupational Group
b)      A group which allows for social mobility
Ans :- B

14. The principle element/elements in program planning include:
a)      Group member’s participation
b)      Group member’s interests
c)      The program content
d)      All the above
Ans :- D

15. Which is the World Consumer Rights Day?
a)      March 15
b)      October 1
c)      September 8
d)      June 14
Ans :- A

16. Which one of the below is not a Fundamental Right?
a)      Right to self-destruction
b)      Right to constitutional remedies
c)      Right to freedom of religion
d)      Right to equality
Ans :- A

17. Which of these is not a tool of data collection in Social Work Research?
a)      Interview Schedule
b)      Interview Guide
c)      Case Records
d)      Questionnaire
Ans :- B

18. Pilot study refers to a:
a)      Preliminary study conducted on a limited scale before
the original study.
b)      Preliminary testing of the tools used for the Research.
c)      Follow up study done within a year after the original
study/
d)      Macro-level study undertaken to test the hypotheses.
Ans :- A

19. ‘Operation Flood’ is known for:
a)      Watershed Management
b)      Production of edible oil
c)      Production of milk
d) Flood control
Ans :- C

20. Who had started the first school of social work in India?
a)      G.D. Birla
b)      S.P. Godrej
c)      Sir Dorabjee Tata
d)      M.K. Tata
Ans :- C

21. Which of the following is not part of the U. N.?
a)      FAO
b)      ILO
c)      WHO
d)      Ford Foundation
Ans :- D

22. Adoption of children in India is regulated by:
a)      Special Adoption Act
b)      Hindu Adoption Act
c)      Uniform Adoption Act
d)      Uniform Adoption Act
a)      (a) and (b)
b)      (a) and (b)
c)      (b) and (c)
d)      (a) and (d)
Ans :- C

23. In HIV Counseling VTTC refers to:
a) Voluntary Condom use Training Centre
b) Voluntary Counseling and Testing Centre
c)      Voluntary Centre for Training and Care
d)      Voluntary Care and Treatment Centre
Ans :- B

24. Social advocacy is not:
a)      Lobbying with the government
b)      Mobilizing grass root organizations
c)      Working with media
d)      Organizing Welfare Programs
Ans :- A

25. The Mental Health Act was enacted in the year:
a)      1985
b)      1987
c)      1989
d)      1990
Ans :- B

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UNIT-VII, Social Work Research

Sat, 12 Sep 2015 10:34:27 GMT

Multiple Choice Questions-1

1) Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems?
a.      Action research
b.      Basic research
c. Predictive research
d.      Orientational research
Ans :- A

2) How much confidence should we place in a single research study?
a.      We should completely trust a single research study.
b.      We should trust research findings after different
researchers have found the same findings
c. Neither a nor b
d.      Both a and b
Ans :- B

3) Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?
a.      Rationalism
b.      Deductive reasoning
c. Inductive reasoning
d.      Probabilistic
Ans :- B

4) Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the “same variables but different people” is which of the following?
a.      Exploration
b.      Hypothesis
c. Replication
d.      Empiricism
Ans :- C

5) ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.
a. Rationalism
b.      Deductive reasoning
c. Logic
d.      Empiricism
Ans :- D

6) According to the text, what are the five key objectives of science?
a.      Prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation,
description
b.      Influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers
c. Exploration, description, explanation, prediction,
influence
d.      Questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary
Ans :- C

7) A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was:
a.      Explanation
b.      Description
c. Influence
d.      Prediction
Ans :- A

8) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or explanation?
a.      It is parsimonious
b.      It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place,
situation, or person
d.      All of the above are characteristics of good theories
Ans :- D

9) Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science?
a.      Science cannot provide answers to all questions
b.      It is possible to distinguish between more and less
plausible claims
c. Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms
and practices
d.      Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as
whether abortion is immoral
Ans :- D

10) What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher advance an ideological or political position?
a.      Evaluation research
b.      Basic research
c. Action research
d. Orientational research
Ans :- D

11) Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?
a.      Inductive
b.      Deductive
c. Inductive
d.      Top down
Ans :- A

12) Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge generation?
a.      Empiricism
b.      Rationalism
c. Expert opinion
d.      None of the above
Ans :- B

13) Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?
a.      Deductive method
b.      Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d.      Pattern method
Ans :- A

14) Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?
a.      Deductive method
b.      Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d.      Pattern method
Ans :- B

15) Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a.      Deductive method
b.      Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d.      Pattern method
Ans :- A

16) Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?
a.      Deductive method
b.      Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d.      Pattern method
Ans :- B

17) Which of the following statements is true of a theory?
a.      It most simply means “explanation”
b.      It answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. It can be a well developed explanatory system
d.      All of the above are correct
Ans :- D

18) Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a.      The collection of nonnumerical data
b.      An attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c. Research that is exploratory
d.      Research that attempts to generate a new theory
Ans :- B

19) A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.
a.      A constant
b.      A variable
c. A cause-and-effect relationship
d.      A descriptive relationship
Ans :- B

20) A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a.      Categorical variable
b.      Dependent variable
c. Independent variable
d.      Intervening variable
Ans :- C

21) All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a.      It relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b.      It can produce important knowledge about cause and
effect
c. It uses the deductive scientific method
d.      It rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or
environment
Ans :- D

22. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:
a.      It is typically used when a great deal is already known
about the topic of interest
b.      It relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as
words and pictures
c. It is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory
about phenomena in the world
d.      It uses the inductive scientific method
Ans :- A

23) What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a.      Extraneous variables are never present
b.      A positive correlation usually exists
c. A negative correlation usually exists
d.      Manipulation of the independent variable
Ans :- D

24) In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate the independent variable.
a.      Basic research
b.      Quantitative research
c. Experimental research
d.      Causal-comparative and correlational research
Ans :- D

25)What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a.      Resistance to manipulation
b.      Manipulation of the independent variable
c. The use of open-ended questions
d.      Focuses only on local problems
Ans :- B

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Unit - VII, Social Work Research-D. Sreenivasa Reddy

Sat, 12 Sep 2015 09:57:52 GMT

Nature and Significance of Social Research:
In the contemporary world every society today is faced with serious social, economic and political problems. These problems need systematic, logical and practical solution. Problem solving is a technical process. It requires among all other things and accumulation of new knowledge. Research provides means of accumulating such a kind of knowledge and wisdom. In other words research is a systematic effort at gathering, analysis and interpretation of the problems confronted by humanity. It is a thinking process and a scientific method of studying a problem and finding a solution. Social research, however assumes a distinct character of its own in a significant measure when it comes to the application of scientific process as in natural sciences, to social phenomena. Unlike, physical and natural sciences, in social research the objects are conscious and active human beings. The individual behaviour of the objects whether it is free or determined makes the social research really a difficult job. Further, the researcher and object being similar, the scope of an objective approach in social research is limited to a considerable extent.

Types of social research: There are two types of social research.
1. Pure/Fundamental Research: These researches may be conducted either for the verification of some old theory or establishment of a new theory. In this kind of studies old theories should constantly be tested in order to make them more perfect.

2. Applied Research: This kind of studies deals with application of the result of fundamental research to social problems. Applied research generally takes the form of social surveys.

Social Work Research: Social work research is an indirect or enabling method. Social research occupies a very important place in the field of social work. Social work requires proper understanding, collections and analysis of social facts. For it social research is an effective method and we collect empirical data through research. The solution to individual, group and community problems are found out by research. Therefore, social work research is ‘an organized effort to acquire new knowledge about various aspects of society and social phenomenon’. In the field of social work, social work research (SWR) is used as an auxiliary method. Social work research offers an opportunity for all social workers to make a difference or modification in their practice. There is no doubt about the fact that social worker will be more effective practitioner guided by the findings of social work research. Thus, social work research seeks to accomplish the same humanistic goals, as does a social work method. Social work research deals with those methods and issues, which are useful in evaluating social work programmes and practices. It explains the methodology of social research and illustrates its applications in social work settings.

Nature of Social Work Research:
Social work research primarily deals with problems, faced by professional social workers, social work agencies and community in its concern with social work functions. In other words, in social work research the problems to be investigated are always found in the course of doing social work or planning to do it (Dasgupta, 1968). It is very obvious that in social work research the study of a problem is from the point of view of social work and that of professional social work. The designing of research, problems, data collection and its interpretation will have to be attempted in a manner as would be useful to professional social work which would add new knowledge to the social work theory and practice and improve the efficiency of professional social workers.

Social work research mostly draws its inferences through inductive reasoning. That is, inferring something about a whole group or a class of objects from the facts or knowledge of one or few members of that group or class. Thus, in social work research, inductive reasoning carries us from observation to theory through intervention/assessment.

Scope of SWR: Its scope is based on the nature of social work. Scope means opportunity, outlet, range of action, change to make use of research. Before independence there was not much change to use S.W.R. After independence there are plenty of opportunities to make use of S.W.R. in India. According to our constitution, India should aim at becoming welfare of children, women, handicapped, old and the people affected by natural calamities like flood, earth quake, cyclone, etc. and manmade calamities like wars, riots, migration, etc. Therefore, there is need to study the welfare needs and social problems through research.

There is need to evaluate the programmes already undertaken. Hence the various ministries and the planning commission and various departments at the centre and state are asking social work institutions and agencies to conduct research to social agencies and institutions. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), Natural Institute of Public Cooperation (NIPC), and many foreign agencies are providing funds for conducting research. University Grants Commission (UGC), Department of Social Welfare Board, Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB) and many other departments are providing grants for conducting social work research in India.

Purpose of SWR: Social work is a practical profession. As such, the major objective/purpose of social work research is to search for answers to questions raised regarding interventions or treatment effectiveness in social work practice. In other words social work research attempts to provide knowledge about what interventions or treatments really help or hinder the attainment of social work goals. In addition, it also helps in searching for answers to problems or difficulties faced by social work practitioners in the practice of their profession. Ultimately, it helps building knowledge—base for social work theory and practice.

Research Designs:
A research design is a systematic plan to study a scientific problem. After selecting the topic the researcher is to plan how to conduct his/her research in the most efficient and successful manner. Good planning gives the researcher right direction for the successful completion of the project. The plan of study is called research design. Research design is a blue print for the proposed study.

A Research design is a logical and systematic planning and directing a piece of research. Research design addresses itself to certain key issues such as:

What is the problem?
What are the major research questions?
What is the population for the study (area)?
What is the sample size for the study?
How the sample size will be selected?
What methods and techniques will be used to collect the date from the samples?

Thus, the details about these issues constitute a research design. To be more specific, a research design includes the details about the problem, the objectives, research questions, area of study (population), sampling method, and method and techniques of data collection. In fact, research design spells out in considerable detail what occur in the research process.

Importance of Research Designs:

Research design specifies the objectives of the study, the methodology and techniques to be adopted for achieving the objectives.
It constitutes the blue print for the collection, measurement and analysis of data.
It the plan, structure and strategy of investigation conceived so as to obtain answers to research questions.
A research design is the programme that guides the investigator in the process of collecting, analyzing and interpreting observations.
It provides a systematic plan of procedure for the researcher to follow.

Types of Research Designs: There are three types of research designs. Namely:

1. Exploratory (or) Formulative Research Designs
2. Descriptive Research Designs
3. Experimental Research Designs.

1. Exploratory /Formulative Research Designs: Explorative research studies are also termed as fromulative research studies. The main purpose of such studies is that formulating a problem for more precise investigation or of developing the working hypothesis from an operational point of view.

It is a rather broad category of research. It includes unstructured preliminary studies designed to develop relevant concepts, to formulate research questions, to choose problems. Many exploratory studies have the purpose of formulating hypothesis. It increases the investigators familiarity with the phenomenon he/she wishes to investigate. For instance, if a researcher wanted to study social interaction patterns of HIV/AIDS patients but knew little or nothing about the phenomenon, an exploratory research would be appropriate.

2. Desctive Research Designs: Descriptive research designs/studies are those studies which are concerned with describing the characteristics of a particular individual, or of a group or a community. For example, A researcher who is interested in studying people of a community, their age and sex composition, caste wise distribution, affiliation to religion, level of education, occupational status, designs his study as descriptive study.

The purpose of descriptive design is to portray accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, group, community or situation; to determine the frequency with which something occurs. An enormous amount of social research has been concerned with describing the characteristics of communities.

3. Experimental Research Designs: Hypothesis testing research studies (generally known as experimental studies) are those where the researcher test the hypothesis of causal relationships between variables. The experimental design is one in which study is made of relationship between two sets of variables, generally described as control group and experimental group.

The concept of experimental design in sociological studies refers to systematic studies of human relations by making observations under conditions of control. Control is obtained by selecting for observation two groups of like individuals. Then one group called the experimental group is given some treatment or is subjected to some force which the other group called the “control” group is denied. Observations and measurements of the relevant variables under study are made before and after the experiment. Mean measurements and the changes in them are made. If the changes in the experimental group are significant in comparison to the changes in the control group, then we conclude that the change is due to the special treatment given to the experimental group.

No finding can be accepted short of confirmation of the results by repeated studies under same conditions. In experimental studies the researcher is an observer and not an active agent of change.

Types of Experimental Designs:
1. Cross Sectional Research Design: In this type of study, controlled comparisons or study is made on a particular day or time, in a section or part of the universe or area of study, to find out the true study. If it reveals a relationship encouraging further research it serves its purpose.

Examples:
1] Police checking on a certain day all the vehicles to find out whether those driving them have proper license or not.

2] Checking a sector of the library to find out whether books are stolen or not.

2. Before and After Research Design: This is the classical pattern of “before and after experiments” that operate from the present to the future. In this design an attempt is made to measure the effects of a social programme or a social force on a group. Measurements of the relevant variables are made before and after the experiment. If the measurements of variables under study indicate a significant difference between the measurements before and after the experiment, then we can conclude that the experimental group.

This design can be used with one control group and many experimental groups to find out the effect of various variables.

3] Ex-Post-Facto Designs: In this design some present effects or incidents are traced backward to an assumed causal complex of forces at a prior date. For example: how this patient got AIDS. Another example; Children were born without limbs. Cause – their mothers had used the drug called Talidomine during the pregnancy. Result – babies without limbs were born to those mothers.

This design restricts research to those problems for which adequate records are available. If a crucial variable is not recorded, the gap cannot be filled in and this design cannot be used. In this design the evaluator does not have good control of causal variables, study conditions, outside variables and measurement of dependent variables.

Research Methods:
Social research is a very complex problem and it us usually difficult to find out good and accurate results with the help of one method alone. In fact, a good social investigator must be prepared to use various methods as complementary to each other. Some of the important research methods are:

1. Social survey method
2. Case study method
3. Statistical method
4. Experimental method
5. Historical method
6. Analytical method
7. Interview method

1. Social survey method: Survey method is one of the techniques used in the analysis of fact finding. They are the widely used method of social research. A fact finding analysis is necessary to solve the innumerable problems in a society. Adequate information about them may not be available in records, files and other sources. A study of them require systematic of gathering and data through personal contacts, interview techniques etc. they are called social survey. Survey means viewing and interpreting things rigorously and comprehensively. Started with this connotation it has undergone such a revolution. Now a days survey method is not a way of collecting data but also analyzing the result statically, systematically. Surveys have a particular method of data collection, a particular method of data analysis and a particular substance.

Surveys are useful in formulating hypothesis. The function of a survey depends on the purpose for which it is required and how much of information is already known about the problem. It is a technique of investigation and it refers to direct observation of a phenomenon and collection of information through personal interview, questionnaire etc. They provide causal and meaningful exploitations. Survey method has great potential in addressing so many theoretical questions in social sciences.

Definition: According to A.F. Wells “A social survey is a fact finding study dealing chiefly with working class poverty and with the nature and problems of community”.

2. Case study method: Case study has been traditionally a method of qualitative analysis. It was developed particularly in U.S.A. and is extensively used in psychology, education, sociology, economics and political science. It has been regarded as best suited for tracing the evolution and growth of a social problem in it s different aspects. This tool appears especially useful in an under developed country where varied social institutions interact mutually.

This is a very good method of collecting information about an individual, a family or a group of persons, community. Each can be considered a unit of investigation. Whatever the unit of a case studies, it is treated as a whole in the context of specific situations. The wholeness is determined through an abstraction of ideas. In one case, an individual’s specific behaviour may be perceived as a totality; in another case, a situation consisting of group activities may be treated as a whole. It is an intensive study through which one can know precisely the factors and causes of a particular phenomenon. It is a kind of qualitative analysis.

Definition: According to P.V. Young, “Case study is a method of exploring and analysis of life of a social unit, be that a person, group, a family, an institution or even entire community”.

Characteristics:

Case study aims at deep and detailed (intensive) study of the unit.
Continuity in investigation
In this study, a large variety of units are selected for study and the size of the unit may be quite large to cover an entire community. In a word, this method treats an individual, an institution or a group of persons as a whole.
Qualitative in character.

3. Statistical method: This method is comparatively of a more recent origin. It was first used in biological sciences and astrology but gradually it was put to use in social sciences too. At present, statistical methods are widely used in economics, psychology and anthropology. They are being increasingly used in the study of purely social phenomenon, and attempts are being made to provide quantitative measurements to them.

Definition: According to Lovitt, “Statistics is the science which deals with the collection, classification, and tabulation of numerical facts as the basis for explanation, description and comparison of phenomena”.

Characteristics:

These methods are used for aggregative analysis and intensive study of individual units. Statistical inferences are based upon averages and they are applicable as a whole and not on any particular unit.
This method is based upon quantitative analysis.

This method of studies has their own limitations. One of the important limitations of this method is that it is of quantitative rather than qualitative by nature as much problems falling under later category cannot be covered in that.

4. Experimental method: This method is widely used in the physical sciences. In fact, the whole system is based on experiments to be carried out in the laboratories. But in so far, as social research is concerned this method is being applied in a very limited sense. This method implies that there should be controlled conditions and circumstances and under those circumstances some conclusions should be derived. The basic factor in case of experiments is the control over the subject of study and its effect upon the dependent variable.

Definition: According to Festiger, “The essence of an experiment may be described as observing the effect on a dependent variable of the manipulation of an independent variable.

Experimental methods are of various types, such as trial and error experiment, controlled observational study, natural experiment, laboratory experiment, Ex-Post-Factor technique etc. and in a research design these occupy a very important place and position. In social research we deal with social institutions, customs and traditions, which again vary both from society to society and country to country and it is impossible to apply this method in their study as well.

5. Historical method: History is a meaningful and an organized record of past events. Historical research attempts to establish facts so as to arrive at conclusions concerning past events. This is usually accompanied by an interpretation of these events and of their relevance to present circumstances and what might happen in the future. The main purpose of historical research, therefore, is to arrive at an accurate account of the past so as to gain a clearer perspective of the present.

Historical data plays a very important role in the social research. A chronological order of past event will be of little use for a social research scholar. In a social survey, social position, human institutions and their developments should be studied. The present day problems will have to be linked with the past events and useful conclusions should have to be derived. Generally there are three major sources of historical information before a researcher:

a) Accessible documents
b) Cultural and analytical historical material, and
c) Reliable sources of personal knowledge.

These major sources can be used by the social researcher to the extent these are relevant to his/her research work. It should always be kept in mind that all historical details are not authentic and these could not be fully relied upon.

6. Analytical method: For quite some time analytical method was not applied or considered suit¬able for the study of Sociology. George Simmel and Durkheim were first who applied this method for the study of Sociology. Under this system an investigator presumes that certain ideals are existing in the society and he either strengthens his presumption or tries to, disprove that. In this system he also studies the causes and effects of social happenings.

But this system too suffers from some serious defects. One of the difficulties with this method is that the social ideals are not uniform throughout the society and vary from one society to the other. Thus whereas on the one hand an Investigator, under certain circumstances, may arrive at certain conclusions about certain social ideals, another investigator under different circumstances may derive at other conclusions about the same social ideas. Then another difficulty is that it is very difficult to easily analyse the causes and effects of every happening because of their complex nature and character Not only tins, but we also find that there is a difficulty in isolating social causes and effects apart from political, economic or cultural effects because each one is closely linked or concerned with the other. Still another difficulty is that there can be happenings which have so complex character that it might be fairly impossible to discuss their causes and effects in their entirety War and revolution can be quoted as such happenings. Due to these difficulties usually analytical method is not very much encouraged.

7. Interview method: Under this method an investigator personally questions the informant and seeks the type of information required by him. The greatest advantage of this method is that the investigator can depend on the information collected by him and that he can also understand the mood and nature of the informant, which he can express in his conclusions. But there is also difficulty about this method. It is just possible that the informant may not be prepared to supply information directly but may be ready to send information in writing. But one of the limitations of the system is that it entirely depends on the interviewers who may not be capable enough of extracting maximum information. He may also not be capable enough to probe deep into the mind of the informant. The investigator can collect the necessary information by administering various types of interviews such as:

Personal interviews: the interviewer asks questions generally in a face to face contact to the other person or persons.
Telephonic interviews: when it is not possible to contact the respondent directly, then interview is conducted through –Telephone.
Structured interviews: in this case, a set of pre-decided questions are there.
Unstructured interviews: in this case, we don’t follow a system of pre-determined questions.
Focused interviews: attention is focused on the given experience of the respondent and its possible effects.
Clinical interviews: concerned with broad underlying feelings or motivations or with the course of individual’s life experience, rather than with the effects of the specific experience, as in the case of focused interview.
Group interviews: a group of 6 to 8 individuals are interviewed.
Qualitative and quantitative interviews: divided on the basis of subject matter i.e. whether qualitative or quantitative.
Individual interviews: interviewer meets a single person and interviews him.
Selection interviews: done for the selection of people for certain jobs.
Depth interviews: it deliberately aims to elicit unconscious as well as other types of material relating especially to personality dynamics and motivations.

Steps in Social Work Research:
The main steps in social work research are as follows.

1. Identification of the problem: The very first of social work research is to identify the subject and nature of the problem and setting of goals.

2. Need assessment: The problem identified has to be relevant to the study that the researcher makes and the branch of the social work which the researcher is going to study.

3. Review of literature: Mere selection of problem is not sufficient. For proper understating of the problem the researcher has to review the literature related to that problem. The earlier studies, if any, which are similar to the study in hand, should be carefully studied. An exhaustive library will be a great help to the researcher at this stage.

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